AIPPG
PGI 2003 Solved paper.
PGI chandigarh answers with some explanations.
Q1. A 24 yr old patient was brought to
emergency department with a history of trauma, blood pressure 100/60 mm of Hg
and tachycardia. Bedside USG revealed splenic laceration. I.V. Fluids were
administered and his blood pressure stabilized at 120/70mm of Hg. Further
management includes?
A. Monitoring and
surgery only if patient deteriorates
B. Immediate laparotomy
and splenic repair
C. Immediate laparotomy
and splenectomy
D. Laparoscopic splenic
repair
Ans: A, D
Q2.True about Barret's
oesophagus is/are ?
A. Causative agent is
Herpes virus
B. Occurs due to chronic
reflux oesophagitis
C. Is associated with
oesophageal varices
D. Here squamous
epithelium is replaced with intestinal type
E. Is a premalignant
condition
Ans: B, D, E
Q3.Catheter insertion
per urethra, is done in all of the following conditions, except?
A. BPH
B. Urethral trauma
C. Prostatic cancer
D. Postoperative
retention of urine
E. Urethral stricture
Ans: B
Q4.The true statement
(s) about hernia is/are?
A. Inguinal Hernias are
more common on the right side
B. Femoral hernia is the
commonest type in females
C. Femoral hernia is
more common in females
D. Strangulated hernia
may be asymptomatic
E. Strangulation is more
common in a direct inguinal hernia
Ans: A, C, E
Q5.For diagnosis in a
patient presenting with a breast lump, the best investigation is?
A. FNAC
B. Bidirectional
mammorgraphy
C. CT Scan
D. MRI
E. Angiography
Ans[a]
Q6. The major criteria
four HIV include?
A. Cough > 1
months-------minor criteria
B. Diarrhoea > 1
months
C. Weight loss > 10%
D. Fever > 1 months
E. Oropharyngeal
candidiasis--------minor criteria
Ans: [B], [C], [D]
Q8. The following induce
weakness in the contraction of the heart?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyopphosphatemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Metabolic acidosis
E. Respiratory alkalosis
Q10. Complete palsy of
the third cranial nerve is associated with?
A. Preservation of
accomodation
B. Ptosis
C. Paralysis of superior
and inferior rectus
D. Dilated pupils
E. Medial deviation of
eyes
Ans: B, C, D, [ref:
basak]
{Preservation of
accommodation: papillary reaction and accommodation preserved bcoz E.W.N normal
[e] : lateral rectus
acting so deviated outward}
Q13. Snow ball opacities
in the vitreous humor, are seen in the eye in?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Endothelial dystrophy
C. Pars planitis
D. Retinitis pigmentosa
E. Rheumatoid arthritis
Q14. A patient of
retinal detachment may be investigated by?
A. Direct ophthalmoscopy
B. Indirect
ophthalmoscopy
C. USG
D. Gonioscopy
E. Triple mirror test
ans: B,E,C,D [ref:
basak]
{Indirect
ophthalmoscopy: used to enhance visualization of extreme peripheral retina.
USG: Used if media hazy. Triple mirror test;to check breaks in retina and
vitreous condition}
Q15. The substance used
in intraocular lens is?
A. Glass
B. Fibre
C. Methyl polysiloxane
D. Poly methyl
metharcylate
E. Silicone
ans: D,E [REF :BASAK}
SILICONE USED 4 FOLDABLE
LENSES , ALSOpoly hydroxy ethyl metha acryl ate.
Q16. Among the
following, the tests that would be useful to diagnose a case of cataract
include?
A. USG
B. Slit lamp examination
C. Contrast sensitivity
D. Colour vision test
E. Gonioscopy
Ans:A,B,D
A.USG---------to
calculate power of lens to be placed and check retina and vitreous
B. Slit lamp
examination-----4 detail examination of eye and to know type of cataract
C Colour vision
test---------part of macular function test
d. Tonomretry done to
check IOP if any abnormality found then gonioscopy.
Q17. Features of spring
catarrah include?
A. Arlt's line
B. Horner's spots
C. Tantra's spots
D. Follicular
hyperplasia
E. Papillary hyperplasia
Ans: A, B, E [REF:BASAK]
REST R SEEN IN TRACHOMA
Q18. True statement
about rigor mortis includes all of the following, except?
A. First appears in the
neck
B. During summer starts
by 24 - 48 hrs
C. During winter starts
by 48 - 72 hrs
D. Appears and
disappears in ascending and descending order
E. Occurs early
following drowning
Q19. Putrefaction is
delayed in poisoning due to?
A. Arsenic
B. Mercury
C. Nitric acid
D. Lead
E. Iron
Ans: A
Q20. Activated charcoal
is used in poisoning with?
A. Alcohol
B. Arsenic
C. Barbiturates
D. Lead
E. Mercury
ans: [b], [c]
Q21. A patient is
brought with opium poisoning. The antagonists to opium include?
A. Buprenorphine
B. Meptazinol
C. Nalorphine
D. Neostigmine
E. Pyridostigmine
Ans: C
Q22. Among the
following, the ones that are organophosphates include?
A. Dieldrin
B. Kepone
C. Malathion
D. Parathion
E. Propoxur
ans:C,D [ref:park]
Dieldrin
-----organochlorine
Kepone------organochlorine
Propoxur-----carbamate
Other commonly asked
Opcompds
1.chlorthione
2.diazinone
3.feninthione
4.abate
5.fenitrothione
Q23. Among the
following, the drugs that are of use in a case of Ectopic pregnancy include?
A. Adriamycin
B. Actinomycin D
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Methotrexate
E. Potassium fluoride
Ans: D
Potassium chloride can
also be used.
Q24. The tests that may
help to know the occurence of ovulation in a female include?
A. USG
B. Levels of
progesterone
C. Temperature changes
D. Levels of oestradiol
E. Examination of
cervical mucus
ans:A,B,C,E
USG ----- ova can be
seen, ruptured ovarian membrane
Levels of
progesterone------increased becoz of stimulation by LH
Temperature
changes------ inc in body temp by 0.5`C
Examination of cervical
mucus------ spinbarkeit phenomenon, excessive strechability
Q25. True about Complete
Hydatidiform mole?
A. it is associated with
Diploidy------complete mole[46xx]
B. it is associated with
Triploidy------partial mole
C. it is treated with
cyclophosphamide-------methotrexate used
D. Malignant change is
seen in 2% cases-----2-10%
E. it is associated with
abortion
ans: [a] ,[d], [ref:
dutta]
Q26. True about Stein
Levinthal syndrome is?
A. Seen in
postmenopausal women
B. May present with
amenorrhoea / oligomenorrhoea
C. Follicular cysts may
be present
D. LH levels are
increased
E. There is hypertrophy
of theca interna
Ans: B, C, D
Q27. True abotut
testicular feminization syndrome is/are ?
A. 46 XY
B. 46 XX
C. Female genitalia
D. Ambigous genitalia
E. Well developed
mullerian structures
ans: A, C
Phenotypically male with
well dev breasts but lack axillary and pubic hair. Small blind vagina,
mullerian dysgenesis.
Testis sec testosterone
present.
Q28. The engaging
diameter in brow presentation is?
A. Mentovertical
B. Submentovertical
C. Suboccipitofrontal
D. Suboccipitobregmatic
E. Submentobregmatic
Ans. A, B
Q29. The causes of
Breech presentation are?
A. Placenta praevia
B. Previous caesarian
section
C. Contracted pelvis
D. Oligohydramnios
E. Hydrocephalus
Ans: A, C, D, E
Q30. Management of a 26
yrs woman with dead fetus in transverse lie, with hand prolapse, now in second
stage of labour, includes?
A. Decapitation
B. Craniotomy
C. Amniotomy
D. Caesarian section
E. Cleidotomy
ans: [a], [d]
Q31. reatment of
Cervical CIS in a 45 yrs old woman presenting with bleeding per vaginum,
includes?
A. Cautery
B. Conization
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Cryosurgery
E. Laser surgery
ans:B
best tratment in this
case will br hysterectomy .[a], [d] , [e] r done in CIN I & II.
Q32. Diabetes mellitus
in pregnancy, is associated with following abnormalities in the foetus?
A. VSD
B. IUGR----- generally
big baby
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperglycemia------
hypoglycemia
E. Neural tube defects
ans: [c],[a], [e]
Other metabolic
abnormalities
1.dec Mg
1. inc bilirubin
2. sacral agenesis
highly specific of diabetic mother
Q33. Foetal cardiac
motion can be observed by transvaginal USG, at early as?
A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 7 weeks
D. 8 weeks
E. 10 weeks
Ans:[b]
for transabdominal scan
----- 7 wks
Q34. In a woman
suffering from Complicated PID, the treatment modalities include?
A.
Culdocentesis---------colpotomy is done for pelvic abscess
B. Broad spectrum
antibiotics
C. Laparoscopic assisted
vaginal hysterectomy------trans abdominal hysterectomy in chronic cases. Not
laproscopic becoz excess adhesions
D. Laparotomy
E. Drainage of
Tubo-ovarain abscess
ans:[b],[d],[e]
Q35. The etiologic agent
implicated in causation of carcinoma of cervix is?
A. HPV types - 6, 11
B. HPV types - 11, 22
C. HPV types - 16, 18
D. HPV types - 21, 22
E. HPV types - 31, 33
ans:[c],[e]
Q36. Cervicits may be
caused by?
A. Staphylococci
B. Pseudomonas
C. Candida albicans
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
E. Chlamydia trachomatis
Ans: D,E most common
cause is gonorrhoea [ref: robbins]
Q37. True statement (s)
about bacterial vaginosis include?
A. pH of vaginal is <
4.5-------- >4.5
B. Amine test is
positive------ fishy odour
C. Clue cells are
seen--------diagnostic
D. No pus cells are seen
in the discharge-----no WBC
E. Metronidazole is used
in treatment
Ans:[b],[c],[d],[e]
[ref: Shaw}
Q38. True about
Intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy is/are ?
A. Jaundice is present
B. Pruritus is a feature
C. Associated with
increased maternal mortality
D. Associated with
increased foetal abnormality
E. Serum bilirubin is
< 5mg/dL
ans: [a], [b],[e]
It is 2nd MC cause for
jaundice in pregnancy.first being viral hepatitis.occurs MC in last trimester .
resolves within 2 wks postpartum.
Q39. A 22 year old lady
gave birth to a 2.2 kg baby. Her date of LMP was not known. The approximate age
of the baby can be calculated using?
A. Helix of ear
B. Birth weight
C. Articular cartilage
D. Anterior fontanelle
E. Sole crease
Q40. The immunoglobin
that can be transferred to the foetus transplacentally is?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. IgD
Ans: B
Q41. The immunoglobulin
activating classical complement pathway is?
A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgA------activates
alternative pathway
D. IgM
E. IgE
ans: [a] ,[d]
ref:ananthnarayan
Q42. A non-alcoholic,
diabetic patient with increased serum ferritin levels and hyperpigmentation,
may be suffering from ?
A. Aceruloplasminemia
B. Atransferrinemia
C. Sideroblastic anaemia
D. Thalassemia
E. Wilson's disease
Ans: B ref to
haemochromatosis
Q43. Diabetes mellitus
is associated with all of the following except?
A. Encephalopathy
B. Myopathy
C. Myelopathy
D. Myelitis
E. Neuropathy
Ans: C, D
Q44. A patient presented
with headache, and his blood pressure was found to be 190/120. The management
may be with?
A. Beta blockers
B. Oral enalapril
C. Sublingual nifedipine
D. Intravenous enalapril
E. I.V. nitroglycerine
Ans: B, c, a
Q45. The hormone that is
predominantly secreted by an extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma is?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C.
Epinephrine----------------if associated with MEN or in intraardrenal tumor
D.phenylalanine
E. VMA
Ans: b
Q46. There is an
association of pulmonary hypertension with?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Congestive cardiac
failure
D. Interstitial lung
fibrosis
E. Mitral stenosis
Ans: A, B, C, D, E
Q47. Paraneoplastic
effects in a patient of bronchogenic carcinoma, include?
A. Addison's disease
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Jaundice
E. Lytic bone lesions
Ans: A, B, C,
Q48. "Susruha
Samhita" was translated by?
A. Bernard
B. Bagha bhatta
C. Milliard
D. Celsius
E. Maurice
Q49. A patient was
brought to the emergency with dehydration, Blood pressure was 90/70 mm of Hg,
and blood examination revealed a pH of 7.28. Further management includes?
A. Adrenaline injection
B. Potassiym
supplementation
C. Dopamine infusion
D. Bicarbonate injection
E. I.V. fluids to
correct dehydration
ans: [e]
Q50. Acute injury to
lungs is associated with?
A. pericardial effusion
B. pulmonary parenchymal
oedema
C. normal pulmonary
capillary wedge pressure
D. selective dilatation
of pulmonary blood vessels
E. Shunting of blood
Ans: B,C,D, E case of
A.R.SD
Q51. Vanishing bile duct
syndrome is assciated with?
A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Graft verus host
disease
C. Hepatitis C
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Non - cirrhotic
portal fibrosis
Also called ALEGILLE
SYNDROME
Q52. Scraping of the
skin is useful in diagnosis of which of the following:
A. Botryomycosis
B. Coccidiodomycosis
C. Dermatomycosis
D. Herpes virus
infection
E. Sporothrix
Ans: C
Q53. True statement(s)
about impetigo include?
A. caused by
staphylococci------phage type 71
B. caused by
streptococci----------Gp A beta hemolytic streptococci
C. non
contagious------------contagious
D.
intraepidermal-------------epidermal
E. does not form scar on
healing
Ans:[a], [b], [e]
Q54. Left border of the
heart is formed by which of the following?
A. Arch of aorta
B. Ascending aorta
C. Right ventricle
D. Pulmonary artery
E. Pulomnary vein
Ans: A, C, D
Q55. Egg shell
calcification is seen in?
A. Berylliosis
B. Bronchogenic
carcinoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Silicosis
Ans: C, D, E
Q56. Among the
following, the tumors that are sensitive to radiotherapy, include?
A. Adenocarcinoma of the
stomach------------surgery is best
B.
Leukemia----------chemotherapy
C. Lymphoma
D. Sarcoma-----------------surgery
E. Seminoma
ANS: [C], [E]
Q57. Radiological
features of Osteosarcoma include?
A. Soap bubble
appearance
B. Codman's triangle
C. Onion peel appearance
D. Sun ray appearance
E. New bone formation
Ans: [B], [D], [E].
Q58. Honey comb
appearance is seen in?
A. Aspergilloma
B. Bronchogenic
carcinoma
C. Interstitial fibrosis
of lung
D. Silicosis
E. Tuberculosis
Ans: C, D, E
Q59. The causes of
posterior mediastinal mass include?
A. Anterior thoracic
meningocele
B. Bronchogenic cyst
C. Lymphoma
D. Neuroenteric cyst
E. Neurogenic cyst
Ans: D, E
Q60. Epstein Barr virus
is implicated in causation of ?
A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Hogkin's
lymphoma-------can cause acc to Robbins
C. Nasopharyngeal
carcinoma-----anaplastic variety
D. Renal cell carcinoma
E. Hepatocellular
carcinoma
Ans: A, C
Other lesions caused by
it; ----
1.oral hairy leukoplakia
2.chronic fatigue
syndrome
1. tonsillar Ca
2. duncan’s
d/s
Q61. Among the following
microorganisms, the ones that posses a capsule are?
A. Cryptococci
B. Candida albicans
C. Haemophilus
influenzae
D. Histoplasma
capsulatum
Ans: A, C,
Other important
capsulated bacterium is pneumoccocus. India ink used to demo capsule.
Q62. The causative
agent(s) of pseudomembranous colitis include?
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Pseudomonas
D. Clostridium difficile
E. Candida albicans
Ans:[d]
Q63. In a precipitation
reaction, prozone formation ?
A. is due to excess
antigens
B. is due to excess
antibodies
C. is due to broken
antibodies
D. is due to false
negative reaction
E. is due to false
positive reaction
Ans: A
Q64. True statment(s)
about babesiosis include?
A. It is caused by
Babesia microti
B. Causes bone marrow
suppression------- causes renal failure
C. The organism is found
within RBC's
D. The organism is found
within WBC's
E. Chloroquine is used
in its treatment-----------quinine with clindamycin / azithromycin
ans: [a], [c],
Q65. True about cerebral
malaria include?
A. Most commonly caused
by P.vivax-------P. Falciparum
B. Pathogenesis involves
ischemia following capillary blockage
C. There is
hyperviscosity of blood----------hypo
D. There is
hyperglycemia--------hypoglycemia
E. Signs of meningitis
may be absent
Ans: [b],[e]
Features
1. Diffuse symmetrical
encephalopathy
2. Focal neurological
signs unusual.
3. Plantar reflex may be
plantar or extensor.
4. Abdominal and
cremastric –absent
5. 15% will have retinal
h’age.
Q66. True statement
about Typhoid is/are ?
A. The bacteria are
transported in water
B. Subclinical cases are
rare-------common
C. Chronic carrier state
is common
D. Widal test is
positive in the 1st week-----2nd week
E. Ty21a is an oral
vaccine
Ans: C, E
Remember BASU
1st wk--- Blood
2ndwk----widal
3rd-----stool
4th wk -------urine
Q67. Among the
following, the ones that affect metaphyses are?
A.
Osteoclastoma------epiphysis
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Ewing's
sarcoma-----diaphysis
E. Metaphyseal fractures
Ans: B, C, E
Q68. The commonly
affected site by adventitious bursitis, due to tuberculosis, are?
A. Bursa at Greater
trochanter of femur
B. Metatarsal bursa
C. Subolecranon bura
D. Prepatellar bursa
E. Subacromial bursa
{Ans:[b] ref: bailey}
Q69. Caries spine is
associated with all of the following, except?
A. Night sweats
B. Weight gain
C. Gibbus
D. Lordosis
E. Spasticity-----1st
sign
Ans: [b] caries spine~
TB
Q70. Rocker bottom foot
deformity is seen in ?
A. Over correction of
CTEV
B. Congenital vertical
talus
C. Forefoot correction
with persistent equinus deformity
D. Posteromedial soft
tissue contractures
E. Gracilis abnormality
Ans: [a], [b]
Q71. For primary bone
grafting, the best donor site is?
A. Olecranon
B. Pelvis
C. Fibula
D. Greater trochanter of
femur
E. Medial malleolus
Q72. [A patient has
lower Ulnar nerve palsy. He will show?
A. Thenar
wasting------median nerve
B. Weakness of hand
movements
C. Loss of abduction of
thumb
D. Loss of extension at
carpometacarpal joints
E. Sensory loss over
dorsal surface of medial 4 fingers
Ans: [b] becoz supply
dorsal and palmar interroseous.The ulnar nerve, in the hand Passes between the
pisiform and hook of the hamate, in front of flexor retinaculum and pisohamate
ligament;
· divides into deep and
superficial branch;
· is covered by deep
fascia and then by palmaris brevis (cutaneous muscle)
o 1) Superficial branch
gives cutaneous branches to medial 1 1/2 fingers and motor branch to palmaris
brevis. It communicates with the median nerve.
o 2) Deep branch
supplies 3 hypothenar muscles and all short muscles of hand, except for the 5
muscles innervated by median nerve
HYPOTHENAR MUSCLES have
a common origin from the flexor retinaculum, pisiform and hook of hamate.
o ABDUCTOR DIGITI V or
MINIMI attaches to the base of the proximal phalanx of digit 5
o FLEXOR BREVIS DIGITI V
or MINIMI attaches to the base of proximal phalanx of digit 5
o OPPONENS DIGITI V or
MINIMI attaches to the 5th metacarpal bone.
· Are innervated by the
deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
Thenar muscles
innervated by ULNAR NERVE
ADDUCTOR POLLICIS lies
deep to the thenar muscles
· Attaches from the
middle metacarpal and capitate
· To the base of 1st
phalanx.
· Is innervated by the
ulnar nerve.
Flexor pollicis brevis
attaches to the base of proximal phalanx of digit 1
· Are innervated by
median nerve (C8, T1) and the deep branch of ulnar nerve ( innervating the deep
part of flexor pollicis brevis)
Q73. Differential
diagnosis of arthritis affecting the right knee joint in a young patient
include?
A. Rheumatoid
arthritis-----SYMMETRICAL INVOLVEMENT MOST COMMONLY
B.
Osteoarthritis-------B/L
C. Gonococcal arthritis
D. Tuberculous arthritis
E. Gout---- MC SITE
GREAT TOE
Ans: C, D,
Q74. Displaced fracture
of patella should be treated by?
A. Patellectomy
B. Wiring with absorable
sutures
C. External fixators
D. POP cast
E. Tension band wiring
Ans: A, E
Q75. L-bupivacine can be
used?
A. intrathecally
B. epidurally
C. intravenously
D. orally
E. via a nasogastric
tube
Ans: B,
Q76. Erb's point is the
point of confluence of?
A. C2, C3
B. C4, C5
C. C5, C6
D. C7, C8
E. C8, T1
Ans: c5, c6
Q77. Structures derived
from the neural crest are?
A. Dorsal horn cells
B. Sympathetic ganglia
C. Cauda equina
D. Adrenal medulla
E. Adrenal cortex
Ans: B, D
Neural crest derivatives
1.spinal posterior nerve
root ganglion
2.sympathetic ganglia
3.sensory ganglia of V,
VII, VIII, IX, X cranial nerves.
4.dental papillae
5.chromaffin tissue
6.melanoblasts
7.pia and arachnoid
mater
Q78. The blood supply of
the stomach includes?
A. Splenic artery-----
largest branch of celiac artery
B. Short gastric
arteries------branch of splenic artery
C. Phrenic artery-----supplies
diaphragm
D. Left gastric
artery----smallest Br of celiac artery
E. Left gastroepiploic
artery-----br of splenic artey
Ans: B, D, E
Q79. Superficial
perineal muscles include?
A. Ischiocavernosus
B. Ileococcygeous
C. Pubococcygeous
D. Bulbospongiosus
E. Transversus perineii
superficialis
Ans: A, D, E
Q80. Thenar muscles are
supplied by?
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Anterior interosseous
nerve
E. Posterior
interosseous nerve
Ans: A, B
Q81. Left ureter is in
close relation to?
A. Left renal artery
B. Gonadal vessels
C. Sigmoid mesocolon
D. Quadratus lumborum
muscle
E. Iliac vessels
ANS:[b],[e]
Relation of left ureter
1.testicular artey
2.left colic artery
3.sigmoid colon
Posterior relation
1.internal iliac vessels
Anterior relations
1.ductus deferens
2.uterine artery
Q82. The true statement
about stem cells include?
A. They divide to form
different cell lines
B. They are used in gene
therapy
C. They are terminally
differentiated cells
D. The are present in
peripheral circulation
E. They are incapable of
division
Ans: A, B [A
I P P G pgi answers]
Q83. The aortic opening
transmits following structures?
A. Thoracic duct
B. Aorta
C. Sympathetic
vein----passes behind medial arcuate ligament
D. Azygous vein
E. Hemiazygous vein
Ans: A, B,C, D,E
also left phrenic
nerve,subcostal nerve.
Q84. Regarding Inguinal
canal, true statements include?
A. It contains round
ligament in females
B. The superficial ring
is superomedial to pubic tubercle
C. The deep ring is an
fascial condensation of fascia transversalis
D. It contains
testicular artery and veins in males
E. It is intramuscular
Ans: A, B, C, and D
Q85. True statement
is/are?
A. Frontal lobe is
better developed in humans as compared to monkeys
B. The brain size is
bigger in monkeys
C. Color vision is
absent in monkeys
D. Brain body ratio is
more in humans
E. There are more
convolutions in brain of the monkeys
Q86. The technique (s)
which differentiate between proteins on the base of their size (and not on
charge) include?
A. Sedimentation
B. Electrolysis
C. Ion exchanage
chromatography
D. Paper chromatography
E. SDS – PAGE
ans: [a] rest all depend
on charge
Q87. True statement (s)
about reverse transcriptase ?
A. Used in gene therapy
B. Involves formation of
DNA from RNA
C. Involves formation of
RNA from DNA
D. Requires NADPH
E. Useful in HIV
infection
ans: [a],[b],[e]
Q88. Formation of
hydrogen peroxide requires following enzymes?
A. Ligase
B. Dehydrogenase
C. Oxygenase
D. Oxidase
E. Peroxidase
ans:[e]
Q89. Repeat DNA
segements are seen in?
A. Telomeres
B. DNA satellites
C. Cloned DNA
D. Histone DNA complex
Q90. DNA formed using
reverse transcriptaseQ90. "Triple repeat sequence" diseases include?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Amyotrophic lateral
sclerosis
C. Ataxia telangiectasia
D. Hungtinton's chorea
E. Spinocerebellar
ataxia
Ans: D, E
Other examples r----
1.Spinocerebellar
atrophy
2.Myotonica Dystrophic
3.Friedreich Ataxia
4.Fragile X syndrome
5.Kennedy disease
6.Huntington's disease
Q91. Introduction of
gene into the cells, in gene therapy is done using?
A. electroporation
B. Intraporation
C. Intranuclear
injection
D. Peroxisomal liposomes
E. All
Ans: [a], [c],[d]
All above methods r used
4 nontargeted delivery.
For targeted delivery
1. ligand DNA conjugates
2. Adenovirus ligand DNA
conjugates
Q92. Among the follownig
disease, the ones that have enzyme defects, include?
A. Ataxia telangiectasia
B. Achondroplasia
C. Phenylketonuria-----
D. von Willebrand's
disease
E.
Alkaptonuria----homogentesic oxidase
Ans: [c], [e]
Q93. True statements
about iron absorption include?
A. It occurs in
duodenum-----distal duodenum and jejunum
B. increased in
decreased body iron stores
C. increased by increase
in gastric acidity
D. absorption mainly
occurs in ferrous state
E. decreased in
inflammatory bowel disease
ans: [a], [b],[c],
Q94. Regulation of
Phosphofructokinase I and II , and pyruvate kinase is seen in?
A. Brain
B. Muscle
C. Skin
D. Liver
E. RBCs
Q95. All of the
following are treatments for hypercalcemia, except?
A. Levamisole
B. Plicamycin
C. Streptozocin
D. Saline diuresis and
hydrocholorothiazide
E. Gallium nitrate
Ans: B, D, E
other drugs used
1.steroids---calciuric
action
2.frusemide with forced
diuresis
3.bisphosphonates
4.methramycin
5.calcitonin
Q96. Features of
progressive systemic sclerosis are?
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Antifibrillin
antibodies
C. Calcinosis cutis
D. Raynaud's phenomenon
E. Sclerodactyly
Ans: B,C, D, E
Q97. Acute phase
reactants include?
A. Albumin
B. Alpha 1 amyloid
protein
C. Fibrinogen
D. Haptoglobulins
E. Globulins
Ans: B, C, D
Q98. Increased LAP
scores are seen in ?
A. Chronic myeloid
leukemia----dec LAP
B. Hodgkin's disease
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Paroxysmal noctural
hemoglobinuria-----dec LAP
E. Polycythemia
Ans: [c], [e]
Q99. The true statement
(s) about acanthosis nigricans include?
A. It is associated with
obesity
B. It is associated with
insulin resistance
C. There is
hyperpigmentation
D. It occurs in axillary
region
E. It is a marker for
internal malignancies
Ans: A, B, C, D, E
Q100. Regarding
bronchial asthma, the true statements is/are ?
A. Increased
FVC--------normal or dec
B. Decreased PEF
C. Increased
DLCO------dec
D. Increased FRC
E. Increased Tidal
volume-----dec
Ans: B, D
Q101. Reduction of blood
cholesterol levels is achieved by?
A. Regular exercise
B. Increased vegetable
and fibre in diet
C. Increased saturated
fatty acid in diet
D. Decreased total fat
intake
E. Increased
polyunsaturated fatty acid in diet
Ans: A, B, D, E
Q102. All of the
following statements are true about a man suffering from low back pain with
progressive stiffness of the back, except?
A. Association with HLA
B 27
B. Association with
Anterior uveitis
C. More commonly seen in
females
D. Xrays of Sacroiliac
joints may be helpful
E. Xrays of Abdomen is
useful
Ans: [c], [e] all
features of ankylosing spondylitis
Q103. Diseases caused by
Prions include ?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Creutz feldt Jacob's
disease
C. Familial fatal
insomnia
D. Gerstmann Strausler
Disease
E. Hungtington's disease
Ans: B, C, D
Prion diseases in humans
are –
1. Creutz Feldt Jacob
disease
2. Gerstmann Straussler
Scheinker disease
3. Kuru
4. Familial fatal
insomnia
5. Sporadic fatal
insomnia
Q105. Palpable Purpura
is seen in?
A. TTP
B. HUS
C. DIC
D. Scurvy
E. Henoch Schonlein
Purpura
Ans: E
Palpable purpura
1,Acute meningococcemia
2.Disseminated
gonococcal infection
3.Infective endocarditis
4.Polyarteritis nodosa
Q106. Peripheral
neuropathy is seen in all of the following conditions, except?
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Polyarteritis Nodosa
C. SLE
D. Tuberculosis
E. Vitamin B 12
deficiency
Ans: D
go thru table no.337-3
on p-2501 in Harry 15th Ed
Q107. Among the
following, the ones that predispose a patient to hepatic encephalopathy is/are
?
A. Bacterial peritonitis
B. Constipation
C. Dehydration
D. Haemorrhage
E.
Hyperkalemia------hypokalemia, not hyper
Ans: A, B, C, D
also occurs in ---
1.azotemia
2.hypernatremia
3.hypoxia
4. Alkalosis
Q108. True statment(s)
regarding alpha - 1 - antitrypsin deficiency include?
A. It is inherited as
autosomal recessive--------autosomal dominant
B. It is associated with
enzyme defect-------antiprotease deficiency
C. It has an association
with emphysema-----causes panacinar type
D. There is presence of
Orcein positive granules in the liver
E. There is presence of
PAS positive diastase resistant granules in the liver------true
Ans: B, C, and E
Q109. Transient weakness
is seen in?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Lambert Eaton
syndrome
C. Guillain Barre
syndrome
D. Myasthenia gravis
E. Multiple sclerosis
ans: [a], [b], [d], [e]
ref to table 22-3 on page 122 in harry 15th Ed
Q110. The infusion of
glucose in a suspected case of hypoglycemia coma is based upon?
A. Clincial assessment
only
B. After blood glucose
estimation
C. After urinary glucose
determination
D. After excluding
electrolyte imbalance
E. After endocrinologist
consultation
Ans: A
Q111. Extrahepatic
biliary obstruction is associated with?
A. Conjugated
hyperbilirubinemia
B. Ascites
C. Malabsorption
D. serum alkaline
phosphatase
E. Pale stools
Ans: A, C, D, E
Q112. Secretory
diarrhoea is caused by?
A. Carcinoid tumor
B. Gastrinoma
C. Lactase
deficiency----- osmotic d’hea
D. Mastocytosis
E. Short bowel
syndrome---- osmotic d’hea
Ans: A, B, D
Q113. Herpes Zoster
infection in a patient suggests that he is suffering from?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. HIV
C. Leukemia
D. Lymphoma
E. Diabetes mellitus
ans: [b], [c], [d]
Q114. Sestamibi is used
in diagnosis of?--------REF TO TECHNETIUM SCAN
A. Adrenal tumors
B. Goitres
C. Ectopic parathyroid
tissue
D. Parathyroid adenomas
E. Parathyroid
hyperplasia
ANS: [C], [D], [E],
Q115. Features of
Schizophrenia include?
A. Avolition
B. Flight of ideas
C. Made effect
D. Thought broadcasting
E. Though insertion
Ans: C, D, E, AIPPG
Q116. Flight of ideas is
seen in?
A. Mania
B.
Schizophrenia----thought block, mutism
C. Depression-----dec
speech
D. Obsessive disorders
E. Hysteria
Ans: [a]
Q117. True statement
regarding the tonsils include?
A. Lies on superior
constrictor muscle
B. Vertical axis is
directed anteromedially
C. Most common cause of
tonsillitis is Streptococci
D. Infection spreads to
jugulodigastric nodes
E. Pain of tonsillitis
is referred to ears
Ans: A, C, D, E
Q118. Functional
endoscopic sinus surgery is indicated in ?
A. Allergic polyps
B. Frontoethmoidal
mucocele
C. Inverted papilloma
D. Maxillary polyp
E. Mucoromycosis
Ans:[b],[d].[a]
Especially used 4
ethmoidal polp
Q119. True statement
about supraglottic carcinoma is/are ?
A. It is more common in
females
B. Cigarette smoking is
most important predisposing factor
C.hot potato voice seen
D. Rarely presents with
neck nodes----------MC mode of presentation
E. Treated by surgery
and adjuvant chemotherapy
Ans: B, D
Q120. True about
otosclerosis is/are ?
A. More common in
females
B. Causes sensorineural
deafness------ noninfective conductive deafness
C. Aggravated in
pregnancy
D. Autosomal dominant
inheritance in > 50%
E. Treated with sodium
fluoride
Ans: A, C, D, E
Q121. CSF - Rhinorrhoea
is associated with fractures of ?
A. Nasal bone
B. Zygomatic bone
C. Mandibular bone
D. Frontoethmodial
fracture
E. Lefort-I
ans: [d]
Q122. All of the
following sinus drain into middle meatus except?
A. Anterior ethmoidal
sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Sphenoidal sinus
E. Posterior ethmoidal
sinus
Ans: A, B, C
Q123. The age at which
an infant can follow horizontally for 180 degress and has almost full head
control but cannot sit without support is?
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
E. 10 months
Ans: 6 mths
Q124. rue statement
about nephrotic sydrome in a patient suffering from minimal change disease is?
A. Minimal change
disease is the commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
B. Hematuria is a
prominent presenting feature--------seen in acute glomerulonephritis
C. Treatment is initiated
only after biopsy
D. Steroids are used in
the treatment
E. Cyclophosphamide and
levamisole are used in the management-------------------- 2nd line if steroids
fail
Ans: A, D, E
Q125. Features of
childhood rickets include all of the following except?
A. Decreased calcium
B. Weight gain
C. Increased alkaline
phosphatase
D. Large anterior
fontanelle
E. Excessive sweating
Ans: [a], [c],[d]
Q126. A 2 yrs old child
is suffering from leukemia. The changes that may be present in the bones
include?
A. Lytic lesions
B. Osteosclerotic
lesions
C. Osteoporotic lesions
D. Periosteal new bone
formation
E. Metaphyseal band
Ans: [a]
Q127. Physiological
jaundice?
A. Appears within 24
hours-------after 24 hrs
B. Occurs due to
increased RBC destruction
C. Occurs due to biliary
obstruction
D. Lasts upto 3
weeks----------not more than 2 wks
E. Is an indication to
stop breast feeding
ans: [b],
Q128. True statement(s)
above apoptosis includes?
A. Intranuclear
chromosomal clumping
B. Caspases are
activated
C. Macrophages engulf
remnants of apoptotic material
D. Lymphocytes and
neutrophil migrate to apoptotic site
E. Vacuoles in lysosomes
is characterstic feature
Ans: A, B, C
Q129. In Acute
inflammation, the mediator for migration and attachment of neutrophils to the
endothelium is?
A. Adhesins
B. Integrins
C. Perforins
D. Opsonins
E. Selectins
Ans: Integrins
Q130. Among the
following, the ones that are premalignant are?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Hyperplastic polyp
C. Menetrier's disease
D. Peutz Jegher's
sydrome
E. Ulcerative colitis
Ans: A, E
Q131. Among the
following, all are premalignant, except?
A. Familial adenomatosis
polyposis
B. Hyperplastic polyp
C. Menetrier's disease
D. Peutz Jegher's
syndrome
E. Villous adenoma
Ans: D
Q132. Factors
predisposing colonic cancer include?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn's disease
C. Tuberculosis
D. Familial adenomatous
polyposis
E. Animal fat
consumption
Ans: [a], [b], [d], [e]
Q133. The cells seen in
Hodgkin's disease are all of the following, except?
A. Langerhans cells
B. Lacunar cells
C. Reed sternberg cells
D. Hodgkin's cells
E. L & H cells
Ans: B, C
Q134. Factors promoting
tumor growth include?
A. ↓ p53
B. ↑ bcl-2
C. ↑ bcl-2:
bax ratio
D. ↓ bcl-2:
bax ratio
E. ↓ bcl-2
Q135. Platelet
dysfunction is seen in?
A. Bernard Soulier
disease
B. Glanzmann's disease
C. HUS
D. Polycythemia
E. Von willebrandt's disease
ans: [a], [b], [e]
Q136. Increased
thrombosis of arteries is seen in ?
A. Protein C deficiency
B. Protein S deficiency
C. Antiphospholipid
antibody syndrome
D. Decreased
Antithrombin III
E. Increased Fibrinogen
Ans: A, B, D,
Q137. Call Exner bodies
are seen in?
A. Brenner's tumor
B. Endodermal sinus
tumor
C. Embryonal cell
carcinoma
D. Leydig cell tumor
E. Granulosa cell tumor
Ans: E
Q138. Splenic dysfuntion
is seen in?
A. SLE
B. Tropical splenomegaly
C. Coeliac sprue
D. Polycythemia
E. Weber Christian
disease
Ans: [a], [b], [d]
Q139. The etiologic
agents impicated in the pathogenesis of coronary artery disease include?
A. CMV
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Herpes virus
D. Hemophilus influenzae
E. Streptococcus
pneumoniae
ans: [e]
Q140. Inheritance of
mitochondrial DNA is ?
A. Paternal
B. Horizontal
C. X linked
D. maternal
e.Vertical
ans: [d]
Q141. All of the
following are autosomal recessive, except?
A. Alpha 1 antitrypsin
deficiency
B. Gaucher's disease
C. Hereditary
hemochromatosis
D. Hereditary
spherocytosis
E. Phenylketonuria
Ans: [a], [b], [c],[e]
Q142. Regarding the site
of lesion in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, true statement (s) include?
A. Anterior horn cells
B. Posterior horn cells
C. Pyramidal tracts
D. Neuromuscular
junction
E. Extrapyramidal tracts
Ans: [a] both UMN and
LMN r involved
Q143. Anti-parkinsonian
drugs include?
A. Amatadine
B. Mazindol
C. Levodopa
D. Metronidazole
E. Methyl phenidate
Ans: A, C
Q144. Complications
associated with the use of Dapsone therapy include?
A. Jaundice
B. Rashes
C. Bone marrow
suppression
D. Hemolysis in G6PD
deficient patients
E. Exacerbation of
leprosy
Ans: A, B, D, E
Q145. Antibiotics which
are used as anticancer drugs include?
A. Actinomycin D
B. Bleomycin
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Methotrexate
E. Plicamycin
Ans: A, B, E
Q146. True statement (s)
regarding Esmolol include?
A. Can be used in
asthma--- it is selective β1 blocker
B. Can be used in renal
disease
C. Is given as
continuous i.v. infusion
D. Is non-selective beta
blocker
E. Actions last more
than 6 hrs------ultra short acting
Ans: A, B, C
Q147. Among the
following, the ones that are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Paroxetine
C. Fluvoxamine
D. Mirtazapine---------
Enhances release of both Noradrenaline & Serotonin by blocking alpha2
receptors.
E. Venlafaxine
---------Serotonin & Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor.
Ans: A, B, C
Q148. Prostaglandins
with vasodilator properties include?
A. Leukotriene D4
B. PGE2
C. PGF2α
D. TXA2
E. Prostacyclin
Ans: B, C, E
Q149. Warfarin induced
Skin necrosis occurs due to?
A. Antithrombin III
deficiency
B. Protein C deficiency
C. Protein S deficiency
D. Increased Factor VII
levels
E. Increased Platelet
counts
Ans: [b]
Occurs on 3rd
– 10th day of therapy
Unrelated to dose or
underlying d/s
MC site –
breast , thigh, buttocks
Treatment: vit k and
heparin
Q150. True statement(s)
regarding propranolol include?
A. It is a non selective
beta blocker
B. It does not have
intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
C. It has a short half
life
D. It increases the
airway resistance
E. It can be given to
reduce anxiety
Ans: [a], [b]
Q151. Drugs causing
Torsades de pointes include?
A. Digoxin
B. Disopyramide
C. Lignocaine
D. Procainamide
E. Quinidine
ans:[ B], [d], [e].
other drugs---------
1. amiodarone
2. astemazole
3. cisapride
4. clomipramine
5. desipramine
6. erythromycin
Q152. Drugs causing bone
marrow suppression in a patient suffering from HIV infection are?
A. Nelfinavir
B. Didanosine
C. Indinavir
D. Steroids
E. Zalcitabine
Q153. Drugs that are
effective against anaerobes include?
A. Amikacin
B. Aztreonam
C. Imipenems
D. Metronidazole
E. Vancomycin
ans:[c], [d]
Q154. Newer
anti-histamines are?
A. Azelastine
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Desloratadine
D. Fexofenadine
E. Levalorphenol
Ans [c], [d] other
egs----
6. terfenadine
7. astemazole
8. loratidine
9. cetrizine
Q155. The true statement
about Vancomycin is/are ?
A. It acts on cell wall
B. Useful against gram
negative organisms------g+ve bacteria
C. Can also be used for
anaerobic organisms----no
D. Rash is one of the
side effects-----skin allergy occurs
E. Useful in MRSA
Ans: A, E
Q156. The drugs that are
preferred in a patient who develops cyclosporine induced hypertension are?
A. Beta blockers
B. Calcium channel
blockers
C. Clonidine
D. Enalapril
E. Frusemide
Ans: [b] ref: cmdt
Q157. A 24 yr old patient was brought
to emergency department with a history of trauma, blood pressure 100/60 mm
of Hg and tachycardia. Bedside USG revealed splenic laceration. I.V. Fluids
were administered and his blood pressure stabilized at 120/70mm of Hg. Further
management includes?
A. Monitoring and surgery
only if patient deteriorates
B. Immediate laparotomy
and splenic repair
C. Immediate laparotomy
and splenectomy
D. Laparoscopic splenic
repair
Ans: A, D
Q158. Tracheostomy
may be required in ?
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Flail chest injury
C. Fracture of pelvis
D. Fracture of femur
E. Tetanus
Ans: [e]
Q159. Swan Ganz Catheter
is used to know?
A. Pulmonary artery
pressure
B. Capillary wedge
pressure
C. Collapsing pressure
of pulmonary vessels
D. Oxygen saturation
in pulmonary vessels
E. Oxygen saturation
in capillaries
Ans: A, B
Swan ganz catheter
The pressure in the
left atrium of the heart may be estimated by measuring the pulmonary wedge
pressure. This technique uses an inflated balloon-tipped catheter, which is
passed through the chambers of the heart from an incision in a peripheral
artery. The catheter is directed by the force of the blood flow on the balloon.
It is eventually positioned so that the tip of the catheter is wedged into
one of the small vessels leading to the lungs. Since this blocks the local
flow, the pressure in the capillary bed of the lungs can be measured. The
pressure across the capillary bed of the lungs is small and so this approximates
to the left atrial pressure.
Such catheters can
be positioned without fluoroscopic (X- ray) assistance and can be used for
medium-term monitoring in the intensive care unit as well as in the cardiac
catheter laboratory.
The left atrial pressure
is a useful index of cardiac performance
Q160. A 70 yr old patient
presenting with abdominal pain, in a state of shock, was found to have abdominal
aneurysm. The management includes all of the following, except?
A. Correction of shock
with fluids and crystalloids
B. Arranging for 6
units of blood
C. USG
D. CT Scan
E. Immediate laparotomy
with repair
Ans: A, B, D, E
Q161. Following an
RTA, a patients was brought with a pulsatile swelling in the groin with palpable
distal pulses, Doppler showed injuires to femoral vessels. Further management
includes?
A. Repair of femoral
vessels
B. Ligation of artery
and repair of vein
C. Ligation of vein
and repair of artery
D. Ligation of both
the vessels
E. Wait and watch
Q162. True statement
(s) about mesenteric artery thrombosis include?
A. Melena is a rare
feature-----common feature
B. Presents as chronic
abdominal pain----sudden onset of abdominal pain
C. Presentation is
with distension of abdomen and simulates intestinal obstruction
D. Heparin is used
in its treatment
E. Short bowel syndrome
is a problem if intestinal resection is undertaken
ans [c], [e]
Q163. The tone of LES
(Lower esophageal sphincter) is reduced by?
A. Antacids
B. Alcohol
C. Coffee/ Tea
D. Diazepam
E. Fat intake
ans; [b], [c] ,[e]
Q164. True about Barret's
oesophagus is/are ?
A. Causative agent
is Herpes virus
B. Occurs due to chronic
reflux oesophagitis
C. Is associated with
oesophageal varices
D. Here squamous epithelium
is replaced with intestinal type
E. Is a premalignant
condition
Ans: B, D, E
Q165. A patient with
gastric outlet obstruction has presented with recurrent episodes of vomiting.
Fluid deficit is to be corrected prior to surgery, with?
A. Ringer's lactate
B. Dextrose 5%
C. Normal saline with
potassium supplementation
D. Hypertonic saline
with potassium supplementation
E. Normal saline only
Ans: A
Q166. True statements
about inflammatory bowel disease are all of the following, except?
A. It is associated
with melena-------severe heamorrhage can occur
B. Surgery is useful
in intractable ulcerative colitis
C. Proctocolectomy
with ileoanal anastomosis is useful in Crohn's disease-------for ulcerative
colitis
D. Steroids have no
role in management
E. Chronic ulcerative
colitis may become malignant-----only 3.5%cases after 20 yrs
Ans: [c], [d]
Q167. The investigation
advised in a patient with intestinal obstruction is/are ?
A. Xray abdomen
B. Upper GI Endoscopy
C. Barium meal follow
through
D. USG
E. CT Scan
Ans: A, D, E
Q168. True statement
(s) about Peutz jeghers syndrome include?
A. About 50% cases
are inherited as autosomal dominant
B. It is a premalignant
condition
C. It is associated
with hyperkalemia
D. It is associated
with hypokalemia
E. It is associated
with peri-oral pigmentation
ans;[e]
Q169. True statement(s)
about intestinal neoplasia is/are?
A. Peutz Jegher's syndrome
is a premalignant condition----benign condition
B. Villous adenoma
is not premalignant-----is premalignant
C. Sessile polyps have
a greater malignant potential
D. Familial adenomatosis
polyposis is associated with a high incidence of malignancy
E. Lymphoma is the
most common intestinal tumor-----adenocarcinoma is MC
Ans: C, D
Q170. True about the
measures that can be helpful in the prevention of colonic carcinoma is/are?
A. Increased fat intake
B. Increased fibre
diet
C. Increased fibre
in diet with decreased fat intake
D. Smoked fish intake------causes
gastric carcinoma
Ans:, [B],[C]
Q171. A 60 yr old male
with left sided carcinoma of colon is brought features of intestinal obstruction.
Management includes?
A. Decompression
B. Left hemicolectomy
C. Hartmann's operation
D. Proctocolectomy
with ileoanal anastomosis
E. Radiotherapy
Ans: A, B, C,
Q172. A patient who
underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy, developed fever on 3rd post operative
day and his USG revealed subhepatic fluid collection measuring 12cms. Further
management includes?
A. Cystic duct ligation
B. Hepatojejunostomy
C. Laparascopic clipping
of cystic duct with drain placement
D. Laparotomy with
Roux en Y loop formation
E. Laparotomy with
repair and T-tube placement
Q173. Catheter insertion
per urethra, is done in all of the following conditions, except?
A. BPH
B. Urethral trauma
C. Prostatic cancer
D. Postoperative retention
of urine
E. Urethral stricture
Ans: B
Q174. A patient with
strangulated inguinal hernia may be investigated by all of the following,
except?
A. Aspiration of fluid
B. Xray abdomen
C. USG
D. CT Scan
E. Laparotomy
Q175. The true statement
(s) about hernia is/are?
A. Inguinal Hernias
are more common on the right side
B. Femoral hernia is
the commonest type in females
C. Femoral hernia is
more common in females
D. Strangulated hernia
may be asymptomatic
E. Strangulation is
more common in a direct inguinal hernia
Ans: A, C, E
Q176. Regarding hypospadias,
true statements include?
A. Urethral stricture
may be present
B. Meatal stenosis
may be present
C. Ventral meatal opening
is the commonest
D. Dorsal hooding of
prepuce
E. Lateral bending
of penis
Ans:[b], [c] ,[d],
[a] ------not sure
Q177. For diagnosis
in a patient presenting with a breast lump, the best investigation is?
A. FNAC
B. Bidirectional mammorgraphy
C. CT Scan
D. MRI
E. Angiography
ans: [a]
Q178. True statements
about lymphangioma include all except?
A. congenital origin
B. infection is the
commonest cause
C. cystic hygroma is
one of the types
D. sclerotherapy is
the treatment modality of choice
E. surgical excision
is the treatment modality of choice
ans:[b]
It is sequestration
of a portion of jugular lymph sac from the lymphatic system for the appearance
of these swelling.
Q179. True statement(s)
about ludwig's angina, include?
A. Caused by H. influenzae
B. caused by anaerobes
C. is an infection
of the floor of the mouth
D. may involve submandibular
and sublingual spaces
E. treatment is with
antibiotics only
Ans: A, C, D
Q180. True about Revised
Natural Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP) ?
A. Active case finding
is done--------patients come seeking treatment
B. Active surveillance
is done
C. It has been implicated
all over India replacing the earlier NTCP
D. Drugs are dispensed
in multiblister packs
E. DOTS is an essential
mode of treatment
Ans: C, D, E
Q181. About tuberculosis,
true statements include?
A. Prevalence of infection
is 30%
B. Prevalence of disease
is 4/1000
C. Incidence of infection
is 20% ----------1-2%
D. Incidence of disease
is 3/1000---------1.5/1000( excluding <5 yr old)
E. Incidence of disease
is calculated by Tuberculin conversion index-----TCI tells about incidence
of infection
Ans: A, B
Q182. Steps that can
help in primary prevention of dental caries include?
A. Calcium supplementation
B. Cleaning of teeth
and dental filling
C. Fluoridation of
water
D. Health education
E. Screening-----------SECONDARY
PREVENTION
Ans: [B], [C], [D]
Q183. Diseases that
have been eradicated worldwide are?
A. Chicken pox
B. Guinea worm
C. Measles
D. Polio
E. Small pox
Ans:[B], [E]
Q184. Complications
associated with the use of Oral polio vaccine include?
A. Vaccine induced
Poliomyelitis
B. Fall in immunity
C. Myopathy
D. Polio in contacts
of vaccine recipients-------esp by type3
E. Guillain Barre syndrome
Ans: A, D
Q185. The major criteria
four HIV include?
A. Cough > 1 months-------minor
criteria
B. Diarrhoea > 1
months
C. Weight loss >
10%
D. Fever > 1 months
E. Oropharyngeal candidiasis--------minor
criteria
Ans: [B], [C], [D]
Q186. About PHC referral
services, the true statement is/are?
A. Health education
B. Registration of
births and deaths
C. Maternal and child
health
D. Basic laboratory
investigations
E. Speciality services------at
community health centre
Ans: [A],[B], [C],
[D]
Q187. The enzyme which
is a marker for Golgi apparatus is?
A. Acid phosphatase--------------
lysosome
B. Glutamate dehydrogenase------------mitochondria
C. Glucose 6 phosphatase--------------ER
D. Galactosyl transferase
E. N-acetyl galactosamine
Ans: [d]
Q188. The resting membrane
potential is dependent upon?
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Magnesium
D. Potassium
E. Sodium
Ans: Potassium[d]
As the membrane is
impermeable to most anions in cell, potassium efflux is not accompanied by
equal movement of anions, and the membrane is maintained in a polarized state,
with outside positive relative to the inside.]
Q189. The following
induce weakness in the contraction of the heart?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyopphosphatemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Metabolic acidosis
E. Respiratory alkalosis
Q190. Features of spinal
shock include?
A. Areflexia
B. Deep tendon reflexes
increased
C. Spasticity
D. Sensory level
E. Urinary retention
Q191. Production of
aldosterone is stimulated by?
A. Atrial natriuretic
peptide-----inhibits
B. Adrenaline
C. Renin
D. Dopamine---------------------inhibits
E. Endorphin
Ans: [c], [e] check
out table 33-1 on page no. 2089 in Harrison
Q192. In carbonmonoxide
toxicity, true is/are?
A. Oxygen content of
the arterial blood is decreased---------remains normal
B. Left shift of oxygen
dissociated curve is noted-----------inhibits release of oxygen
C. Oxygen saturation
at 50% PaO2 is decreased
D. There is metabolic
acidosis
E. Oxygen is used in
its treatment---------100% oxygen
Ans;[b], [c], [d],
[e]
Q193. DNA Polymerase
has which of the following actions:
a. 3-5 exonuclease---------proof
reading activity
b. 3-5 polymerase
c. 5-3 polymerase----------esp
by type III
d. hn RNA lyase
e. Ligase
Ans: [a],[c]
Q194. To Differentiate
between mitochondrial and peroximsomal enzyme activity, it would be found
that in peroxizomes
a. there is higher
enzymatic activity
b. Higher number of
cascades
c. Hydrogen peroxide
forming enzymes are present
d. NADPH is required
Ans: [c]
Q195. Electron microscopy
is useful in which of the following diseases
a. Prion disease
b. Rota virus
c. CMV
d. HSV
e. Calci virus
Q196. CMV retinitis
is treated with
a. Ribavirin
b. Gancyclovir
c. Valacyclovir
d. Acyclovir
e. Amantadine
Ans: [b] also foscarnet
can be used.
Q197. True about Vitamin
K treatment include
a. Increases formation
of II, VII, IX, X factors
b. Does not cause hemolysis--------can
cause hemolysis in dose dependent manner
c. Causes formation
of I, II, X, XII, XIII factors
d. Can be used in liver
disease
Ans: [a]
Q198. A young boy presented
with fever , sinusitis , multiple cranial nerve palsies and proptosis. The
diagnosis is/are
a. Temporal lobe abscess
b. Cavernous sinus
thrombosis
c. Meningitis
d. Petrositis
e. Zygomatic abscess
Ans: [d]
Q199. Features of Meniers
disease include
a. Vertigo
b. Nystagmus
c. Deafness-------
sensorineural type
d. Diplopia
e. tinnitus
Ans: [a], [c], [e]
Q200. True about etiopathogenesis
of Alzhiemers disease include
a. APP gene defect----------point
mutation
b. Prion disease
c. Autoantibody formation
d. Herpes infection
Ans; [a] also seen---
1. neurofibrillary tangles
2. senile plaques
3. amyloid angiopathy
4. hirano bodies
Q201. True about Rabies
includes:
a. Encephalitis is
a feature-----------peripheral nerve involvement
b. Low mortality rate-----------------high
c. Negribodies are
seen in thalamus and pituitary gland----------hippocampus
d. Can be prevented
by post exposure prophylaxis-------------preexposure prophylaxis
e. Caused by DNA virus-------------RNA
Ans: none
Q201. Complications
in the use of thiopentone sodium include
a. Arterial spasm-----------
if given intra arterial
b. Hypotension
c. Urticarial rash
d. Increased airway
resistance
e. Cholinergic symptoms
Ans; [a] ,[b],,,,,,,
anaphylaxis and tachyphylaxis can occur
Q202. True about Dezocin
as compared to morphin include
a. Lesser histamine
release
b. Lesser potency than
morphine-----------similar potency
c. Greater potency
than morphine
d. Lesser dependency
Ans: [d]
1. onset and duration
similar to morphine
2. less risk of abuse
Q203. Which of the
following are associated with ion channel receptors
a. N-M junction
b. GABA-A
c. GABA-B
d. Opiod alkaloids
Ans: [b] also ----1.
nicotinic cholinergic
2. glycine
3.excitatory AA
Q204. True about calciums
is/are
a. Entry is regulated
by calmodulin uptake
b. Extracellular concentration
of calcium is 10,000 times more than intracellular
c. Symport uptake
d. Entry into cell
is passive
e. Released by sarcoplasmic
reticulam
Q205. Folic acid prophylaxis
is useful in preventing
a. IUGR
b. Neural tube defects
c. Preeclammpsia
d. Anaemia
e. Cong heart d/s
Ans: [b]
Q206. Trophoblast derivatives
include
a. Amnion
b. Placenta
c. Chorion
d. Innner cell mass-----------blastocyst
e. Cytotraphoblast
Ans: a, b, c, e.
Q207. Tumor markers
of hepatocellular carcinoma include
a. CEA
b. Des gamma carboxyprothrombin
c. CA 19-9
d. Fucosilated alpha
protein
e. Alpha fetoprotein
elevated in greater than 70% pts
Ans: [b] [e]
Q208. Absolute lymphocytosis
is seen in which of the following
a. Tuborculosis
b. Chronic lymphocytic
leukemia
c. HIV
d. Giardiasis
e. H. Influenza infection
Q209. Tumor markers of testicular include
a. CA 15-3--------Ca
breast
b. LDH------------dysgerminoma
c. HCG-----------gonadal
germ cell
d. Alpha fetoprotein-----gonadal
germ cell
e. Alpha 1 antitrypsin
Ans:[b], [c[], [d]
Q210. True about pulmonary
hypertension include
a. Primary is more
common in men
b. Occurs in left ventricular
dysfunction
c. Interstitial lung
fibrosis is a cause
d. Multiple emboli
can cause
Q211. Tumors sensitive
to radiotherapy include
a. leukemia
b. Lymphoma
c. Sarcoma
d. Gastric adenocarcinoma
e. Seminoma
Ans : [b], [e]
Q212. Which of the
following are causes of posterior mediastinal mass
a. Neuroenteric cyst
b. Neurogenic cyst
c. Anterior thoraxic
meningocele
d. Lymphoma
e. Bronchogenic cyst
Ans[a], [b]
Q213. True about small
intestinal tumors include
a. Most common small
intestinal tumor is lymphoma----------adenocarcinoma
b. Most common site
is duodenum----------ileum
c. Adenocarcinoma occurs
more commonly in ileum-----------distal duodenum and proximal jejunum
d. Presents usually
with intestinal obstruction----------malabsorption
Ans; none
Q214. Thickened muscosal
walls in the stomach occur due to
a. Lymphoma
b. Giardiasis
c. Varicosis
d. Herpes infection
e. Astrophic gastritis
Ans: [a] also in meneteirs
disease
Q215. All of the following
cells are seen in hodgkins except
a. Hodgkin cells
b. L & H cells
c. Langerhan cells
d. Reed sternberg cells
e. Lacunar cell
Ans: [a], [b]
Q216. Nasal foreign
body in children in associated with
a. Inanimate objects
more common
b. Presents with unilateral
foul smelling discharge
c. Serous discharge
bilaterally is a common presentation
d. Sometimes associated
bilaterally with unilateral bloody discharge
e. Most common cause
of epistaxis
Ans; [a], [b], [d]
Q217. True about diarrhea
due to vibrio cholera
a. Vaccine is very
effective
b. Subclinical cases
are rare
c. Infection is spread
by water
d. Antibiotics can
be used as prophylaxis------------- but not for mass prophylaxis
e. Chronic carrier
state is used is persistent
Ans: [c] [d]
Q218. True about extradrenal
pheochromocytoma include
a. Nor epinephrine
is the predominant harmone secreted
b. Epinephrine is the
predominant harmone excreted------- in intra adrenal tumor
c. Most common site
is retroperitineal region------------bifurcation of aorta
d. Headache is a feature
Ans; [a], [d]
Q219. True about malaria
include
a. P. Vivax is most
common form of cerebral malaria------P.falciparum
b. Hyperglyceamia is
a feature-------------------------hypoglycemia
c. Sporozoites are
the infective form
d. Hyperviscosity is
a feature-----------------------anaemia occurs so , viscosity dec
e. Man is definitive
host-----------------------------------mosquito
Ans; [c],
Q220. Which of the
following normal changes in pregnancy
a. Increased Tidal
volume
b. Increased respiratory
rate ---------unaffected
c. Increased FVC -----------------------dec
d. Increased total
lung capacity-------dec
e. Increased residual
volume---------dec by 20%
Ans: [a]
Q221. Features of Meniers
disease include
a. Nystagmus
b. Deafness
c. Tinnitus
d. Diplopia
e. Vertigo
Ans; [b], [c], [e]
Q222. Which of the
following are seen in apoptosis
a. Membrane blebs
b. Macrophages engulf
the disintegrated remaining cell
c. Nuclear fragmentation
occurs
d. Caspases are activated
e. Cell swelling occurs
Ans: [d] [c]
Q223. Two most common
symptoms of biliary cirrhosis are
a. Fatigue
b. Jaundice
c. Pruritis
d. Pain abdomen
e. Vomiting
Ans: [b], [c]
Q224. Which of the
following causes recurrent abortion ?
a. Rubella
b. Toxoplasma
c. CMV
d. Antiphopholipid
Antibody syndrome
Ans: all…
remember TORCH infection
Q225. Following crush
injury muscle vitality can be considered using which of the following indiactors
a. Colour
b. Function of muscle
c. Contractility of
muscle
d. Oozing of blood
at cut ends
e. Presence of pain
Ans: [d]
Q226. Which of the
following predispose a patient to prehepatic encepalopathy
a. Constipation
b. Bacterial peritonitis
c. Heamorrage
d. Hyperkalemia-------
HYPOKALEMIA
e. Dyhydration
Ans:A, B, C.
Also PPT by
1. azotemia
2. alkalosis
3. hypoia
4. hypernatremia
Q227. Basal ganglia
calcification is seen in which of the following
a. hypothyroidism
b. hyperthyroidism
c. hypoparathyroidism
d. hyperparathyroidism
e. cushings disease
ans: [c]
Q228. Treatment of
amblyopia includes
a. orthoptics
b. surgery--------Eg
correction of cataract
c. occlusion
d. Penalization-------
adm of atropine to blur the sound eye
e. Pleoptics-------
to reestablish foveal fixation
Ans; B, C, D, E.
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