AIPPG PGI 2003 Solved paper.
PGI chandigarh answers with some explanations.

Q1. A 24 yr old patient was brought to emergency department with a history of trauma, blood pressure 100/60 mm of Hg and tachycardia. Bedside USG revealed splenic laceration. I.V. Fluids were administered and his blood pressure stabilized at 120/70mm of Hg. Further management includes?
A. Monitoring and surgery only if patient deteriorates
B. Immediate laparotomy and splenic repair
C. Immediate laparotomy and splenectomy
D. Laparoscopic splenic repair

Ans: A, D
Q2.True about Barret's oesophagus is/are ?
A. Causative agent is Herpes virus
B. Occurs due to chronic reflux oesophagitis
C. Is associated with oesophageal varices
D. Here squamous epithelium is replaced with intestinal type
E. Is a premalignant condition

Ans: B, D, E

Q3.Catheter insertion per urethra, is done in all of the following conditions, except?
A. BPH
B. Urethral trauma
C. Prostatic cancer
D. Postoperative retention of urine
E. Urethral stricture

Ans: B

Q4.The true statement (s) about hernia is/are?
A. Inguinal Hernias are more common on the right side
B. Femoral hernia is the commonest type in females
C. Femoral hernia is more common in females
D. Strangulated hernia may be asymptomatic
E. Strangulation is more common in a direct inguinal hernia

Ans: A, C, E

Q5.For diagnosis in a patient presenting with a breast lump, the best investigation is?
A. FNAC
B. Bidirectional mammorgraphy
C. CT Scan
D. MRI
E. Angiography
Ans[a]



Q6. The major criteria four HIV include?
A. Cough > 1 months-------minor criteria
B. Diarrhoea > 1 months
C. Weight loss > 10%
D. Fever > 1 months
E. Oropharyngeal candidiasis--------minor criteria

Ans: [B], [C], [D]

Q8. The following induce weakness in the contraction of the heart?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyopphosphatemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Metabolic acidosis
E. Respiratory alkalosis

Q10. Complete palsy of the third cranial nerve is associated with?
A. Preservation of accomodation
B. Ptosis
C. Paralysis of superior and inferior rectus
D. Dilated pupils
E. Medial deviation of eyes

Ans: B, C, D, [ref: basak]
{Preservation of accommodation: papillary reaction and accommodation preserved bcoz E.W.N normal
[e] : lateral rectus acting so deviated outward}


Q13. Snow ball opacities in the vitreous humor, are seen in the eye in?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Endothelial dystrophy
C. Pars planitis
D. Retinitis pigmentosa
E. Rheumatoid arthritis

Q14. A patient of retinal detachment may be investigated by?
A. Direct ophthalmoscopy
B. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
C. USG
D. Gonioscopy
E. Triple mirror test

ans: B,E,C,D [ref: basak]
{Indirect ophthalmoscopy: used to enhance visualization of extreme peripheral retina. USG: Used if media hazy. Triple mirror test;to check breaks in retina and vitreous condition}


Q15. The substance used in intraocular lens is?
A. Glass
B. Fibre
C. Methyl polysiloxane
D. Poly methyl metharcylate
E. Silicone
ans: D,E [REF :BASAK}
SILICONE USED 4 FOLDABLE LENSES , ALSOpoly hydroxy ethyl metha acryl ate.


Q16. Among the following, the tests that would be useful to diagnose a case of cataract include?
A. USG
B. Slit lamp examination
C. Contrast sensitivity
D. Colour vision test
E. Gonioscopy

Ans:A,B,D
A.USG---------to calculate power of lens to be placed and check retina and vitreous
B. Slit lamp examination-----4 detail examination of eye and to know type of cataract
C Colour vision test---------part of macular function test
d. Tonomretry done to check IOP if any abnormality found then gonioscopy.


Q17. Features of spring catarrah include?
A. Arlt's line
B. Horner's spots
C. Tantra's spots
D. Follicular hyperplasia
E. Papillary hyperplasia
Ans: A, B, E [REF:BASAK]
REST R SEEN IN TRACHOMA
Q18. True statement about rigor mortis includes all of the following, except?
A. First appears in the neck
B. During summer starts by 24 - 48 hrs
C. During winter starts by 48 - 72 hrs
D. Appears and disappears in ascending and descending order
E. Occurs early following drowning

Q19. Putrefaction is delayed in poisoning due to?
A. Arsenic
B. Mercury
C. Nitric acid
D. Lead
E. Iron

Ans: A

Q20. Activated charcoal is used in poisoning with?
A. Alcohol
B. Arsenic
C. Barbiturates
D. Lead
E. Mercury

ans: [b], [c]


Q21. A patient is brought with opium poisoning. The antagonists to opium include?
A. Buprenorphine
B. Meptazinol
C. Nalorphine
D. Neostigmine
E. Pyridostigmine

Ans: C

Q22. Among the following, the ones that are organophosphates include?
A. Dieldrin
B. Kepone
C. Malathion
D. Parathion
E. Propoxur
ans:C,D [ref:park]
Dieldrin -----organochlorine
Kepone------organochlorine
Propoxur-----carbamate
Other commonly asked Opcompds
1.chlorthione
2.diazinone
3.feninthione
4.abate
5.fenitrothione

Q23. Among the following, the drugs that are of use in a case of Ectopic pregnancy include?
A. Adriamycin
B. Actinomycin D
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Methotrexate
E. Potassium fluoride

Ans: D
Potassium chloride can also be used.

Q24. The tests that may help to know the occurence of ovulation in a female include?
A. USG
B. Levels of progesterone
C. Temperature changes
D. Levels of oestradiol
E. Examination of cervical mucus
ans:A,B,C,E
USG ----- ova can be seen, ruptured ovarian membrane
Levels of progesterone------increased becoz of stimulation by LH
Temperature changes------ inc in body temp by 0.5`C

Examination of cervical mucus------ spinbarkeit phenomenon, excessive strechability


Q25. True about Complete Hydatidiform mole?
A. it is associated with Diploidy------complete mole[46xx]
B. it is associated with Triploidy------partial mole
C. it is treated with cyclophosphamide-------methotrexate used
D. Malignant change is seen in 2% cases-----2-10%
E. it is associated with abortion
ans: [a] ,[d], [ref: dutta]



Q26. True about Stein Levinthal syndrome is?
A. Seen in postmenopausal women
B. May present with amenorrhoea / oligomenorrhoea
C. Follicular cysts may be present
D. LH levels are increased
E. There is hypertrophy of theca interna

Ans: B, C, D

Q27. True abotut testicular feminization syndrome is/are ?
A. 46 XY
B. 46 XX
C. Female genitalia
D. Ambigous genitalia
E. Well developed mullerian structures
ans: A, C
Phenotypically male with well dev breasts but lack axillary and pubic hair. Small blind vagina, mullerian dysgenesis.
Testis sec testosterone present.
Q28. The engaging diameter in brow presentation is?
A. Mentovertical
B. Submentovertical
C. Suboccipitofrontal
D. Suboccipitobregmatic
E. Submentobregmatic

Ans. A, B


Q29. The causes of Breech presentation are?
A. Placenta praevia
B. Previous caesarian section
C. Contracted pelvis
D. Oligohydramnios
E. Hydrocephalus

Ans: A, C, D, E

Q30. Management of a 26 yrs woman with dead fetus in transverse lie, with hand prolapse, now in second stage of labour, includes?
A. Decapitation
B. Craniotomy
C. Amniotomy
D. Caesarian section
E. Cleidotomy

ans: [a], [d]

Q31. reatment of Cervical CIS in a 45 yrs old woman presenting with bleeding per vaginum, includes?
A. Cautery
B. Conization
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Cryosurgery
E. Laser surgery
ans:B
best tratment in this case will br hysterectomy .[a], [d] , [e] r done in CIN I & II.


Q32. Diabetes mellitus in pregnancy, is associated with following abnormalities in the foetus?
A. VSD
B. IUGR----- generally big baby
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperglycemia------ hypoglycemia
E. Neural tube defects
ans: [c],[a], [e]
Other metabolic abnormalities
1.dec Mg
1. inc bilirubin
2. sacral agenesis highly specific of diabetic mother

Q33. Foetal cardiac motion can be observed by transvaginal USG, at early as?
A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 7 weeks
D. 8 weeks
E. 10 weeks
Ans:[b]
for transabdominal scan ----- 7 wks


Q34. In a woman suffering from Complicated PID, the treatment modalities include?
A. Culdocentesis---------colpotomy is done for pelvic abscess
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Laparoscopic assisted vaginal hysterectomy------trans abdominal hysterectomy in chronic cases. Not laproscopic becoz excess adhesions
D. Laparotomy
E. Drainage of Tubo-ovarain abscess

ans:[b],[d],[e]


Q35. The etiologic agent implicated in causation of carcinoma of cervix is?
A. HPV types - 6, 11
B. HPV types - 11, 22
C. HPV types - 16, 18
D. HPV types - 21, 22
E. HPV types - 31, 33
ans:[c],[e]


Q36. Cervicits may be caused by?
A. Staphylococci
B. Pseudomonas
C. Candida albicans
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
E. Chlamydia trachomatis

Ans: D,E most common cause is gonorrhoea [ref: robbins]

Q37. True statement (s) about bacterial vaginosis include?
A. pH of vaginal is < 4.5-------- >4.5
B. Amine test is positive------ fishy odour
C. Clue cells are seen--------diagnostic
D. No pus cells are seen in the discharge-----no WBC
E. Metronidazole is used in treatment
Ans:[b],[c],[d],[e] [ref: Shaw}

Q38. True about Intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy is/are ?
A. Jaundice is present
B. Pruritus is a feature
C. Associated with increased maternal mortality
D. Associated with increased foetal abnormality
E. Serum bilirubin is < 5mg/dL
ans: [a], [b],[e]
It is 2nd MC cause for jaundice in pregnancy.first being viral hepatitis.occurs MC in last trimester . resolves within 2 wks postpartum.


Q39. A 22 year old lady gave birth to a 2.2 kg baby. Her date of LMP was not known. The approximate age of the baby can be calculated using?
A. Helix of ear
B. Birth weight
C. Articular cartilage
D. Anterior fontanelle
E. Sole crease

Q40. The immunoglobin that can be transferred to the foetus transplacentally is?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. IgD

Ans: B
Q41. The immunoglobulin activating classical complement pathway is?
A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgA------activates alternative pathway
D. IgM
E. IgE
ans: [a] ,[d] ref:ananthnarayan

Q42. A non-alcoholic, diabetic patient with increased serum ferritin levels and hyperpigmentation, may be suffering from ?
A. Aceruloplasminemia
B. Atransferrinemia
C. Sideroblastic anaemia
D. Thalassemia
E. Wilson's disease

Ans: B ref to haemochromatosis


Q43. Diabetes mellitus is associated with all of the following except?
A. Encephalopathy
B. Myopathy
C. Myelopathy
D. Myelitis
E. Neuropathy

Ans: C, D

Q44. A patient presented with headache, and his blood pressure was found to be 190/120. The management may be with?
A. Beta blockers
B. Oral enalapril
C. Sublingual nifedipine
D. Intravenous enalapril
E. I.V. nitroglycerine

Ans: B, c, a
Q45. The hormone that is predominantly secreted by an extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma is?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine----------------if associated with MEN or in intraardrenal tumor
D.phenylalanine
E. VMA
Ans: b
Q46. There is an association of pulmonary hypertension with?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Congestive cardiac failure
D. Interstitial lung fibrosis
E. Mitral stenosis

Ans: A, B, C, D, E

Q47. Paraneoplastic effects in a patient of bronchogenic carcinoma, include?
A. Addison's disease
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Jaundice
E. Lytic bone lesions

Ans: A, B, C,


Q48. "Susruha Samhita" was translated by?
A. Bernard
B. Bagha bhatta
C. Milliard
D. Celsius
E. Maurice

Q49. A patient was brought to the emergency with dehydration, Blood pressure was 90/70 mm of Hg, and blood examination revealed a pH of 7.28. Further management includes?
A. Adrenaline injection
B. Potassiym supplementation
C. Dopamine infusion
D. Bicarbonate injection
E. I.V. fluids to correct dehydration
ans: [e]

Q50. Acute injury to lungs is associated with?
A. pericardial effusion
B. pulmonary parenchymal oedema
C. normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
D. selective dilatation of pulmonary blood vessels
E. Shunting of blood

Ans: B,C,D, E case of A.R.SD

Q51. Vanishing bile duct syndrome is assciated with?
A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Graft verus host disease
C. Hepatitis C
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Non - cirrhotic portal fibrosis

Also called ALEGILLE SYNDROME


Q52. Scraping of the skin is useful in diagnosis of which of the following:
A. Botryomycosis
B. Coccidiodomycosis
C. Dermatomycosis
D. Herpes virus infection
E. Sporothrix

Ans: C


Q53. True statement(s) about impetigo include?
A. caused by staphylococci------phage type 71
B. caused by streptococci----------Gp A beta hemolytic streptococci
C. non contagious------------contagious
D. intraepidermal-------------epidermal
E. does not form scar on healing
Ans:[a], [b], [e]

Q54. Left border of the heart is formed by which of the following?
A. Arch of aorta
B. Ascending aorta
C. Right ventricle
D. Pulmonary artery
E. Pulomnary vein

Ans: A, C, D

Q55. Egg shell calcification is seen in?
A. Berylliosis
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Silicosis

Ans: C, D, E


Q56. Among the following, the tumors that are sensitive to radiotherapy, include?
A. Adenocarcinoma of the stomach------------surgery is best
B. Leukemia----------chemotherapy
C. Lymphoma

D. Sarcoma-----------------surgery
E. Seminoma
ANS: [C], [E]

Q57. Radiological features of Osteosarcoma include?
A. Soap bubble appearance
B. Codman's triangle
C. Onion peel appearance
D. Sun ray appearance
E. New bone formation

Ans: [B], [D], [E].
Q58. Honey comb appearance is seen in?
A. Aspergilloma
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. Interstitial fibrosis of lung
D. Silicosis
E. Tuberculosis

Ans: C, D, E

Q59. The causes of posterior mediastinal mass include?
A. Anterior thoracic meningocele
B. Bronchogenic cyst
C. Lymphoma
D. Neuroenteric cyst
E. Neurogenic cyst

Ans: D, E

Q60. Epstein Barr virus is implicated in causation of ?
A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Hogkin's lymphoma-------can cause acc to Robbins
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma-----anaplastic variety
D. Renal cell carcinoma
E. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Ans: A, C

Other lesions caused by it; ----
1.oral hairy leukoplakia
2.chronic fatigue syndrome
1. tonsillar Ca
2. duncan&#8217;s d/s

Q61. Among the following microorganisms, the ones that posses a capsule are?
A. Cryptococci
B. Candida albicans
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Histoplasma capsulatum

Ans: A, C,
Other important capsulated bacterium is pneumoccocus. India ink used to demo capsule.
Q62. The causative agent(s) of pseudomembranous colitis include?
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Pseudomonas
D. Clostridium difficile
E. Candida albicans
Ans:[d]


Q63. In a precipitation reaction, prozone formation ?
A. is due to excess antigens
B. is due to excess antibodies
C. is due to broken antibodies
D. is due to false negative reaction
E. is due to false positive reaction

Ans: A

Q64. True statment(s) about babesiosis include?
A. It is caused by Babesia microti
B. Causes bone marrow suppression------- causes renal failure
C. The organism is found within RBC's
D. The organism is found within WBC's
E. Chloroquine is used in its treatment-----------quinine with clindamycin / azithromycin

ans: [a], [c],
Q65. True about cerebral malaria include?
A. Most commonly caused by P.vivax-------P. Falciparum
B. Pathogenesis involves ischemia following capillary blockage
C. There is hyperviscosity of blood----------hypo
D. There is hyperglycemia--------hypoglycemia
E. Signs of meningitis may be absent
Ans: [b],[e]
Features
1. Diffuse symmetrical encephalopathy
2. Focal neurological signs unusual.
3. Plantar reflex may be plantar or extensor.
4. Abdominal and cremastric &#8211;absent
5. 15% will have retinal h&#8217;age.

Q66. True statement about Typhoid is/are ?
A. The bacteria are transported in water
B. Subclinical cases are rare-------common
C. Chronic carrier state is common
D. Widal test is positive in the 1st week-----2nd week
E. Ty21a is an oral vaccine

Ans: C, E
Remember BASU
1st wk--- Blood
2ndwk----widal
3rd-----stool
4th wk -------urine
Q67. Among the following, the ones that affect metaphyses are?
A. Osteoclastoma------epiphysis
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Ewing's sarcoma-----diaphysis
E. Metaphyseal fractures

Ans: B, C, E

Q68. The commonly affected site by adventitious bursitis, due to tuberculosis, are?
A. Bursa at Greater trochanter of femur
B. Metatarsal bursa
C. Subolecranon bura
D. Prepatellar bursa
E. Subacromial bursa
{Ans:[b] ref: bailey}

Q69. Caries spine is associated with all of the following, except?
A. Night sweats
B. Weight gain
C. Gibbus
D. Lordosis
E. Spasticity-----1st sign
Ans: [b] caries spine~ TB



Q70. Rocker bottom foot deformity is seen in ?
A. Over correction of CTEV
B. Congenital vertical talus
C. Forefoot correction with persistent equinus deformity
D. Posteromedial soft tissue contractures
E. Gracilis abnormality
Ans: [a], [b]
Q71. For primary bone grafting, the best donor site is?
A. Olecranon
B. Pelvis
C. Fibula
D. Greater trochanter of femur
E. Medial malleolus
Q72. [A patient has lower Ulnar nerve palsy. He will show?
A. Thenar wasting------median nerve
B. Weakness of hand movements
C. Loss of abduction of thumb
D. Loss of extension at carpometacarpal joints
E. Sensory loss over dorsal surface of medial 4 fingers
Ans: [b] becoz supply dorsal and palmar interroseous.The ulnar nerve, in the hand Passes between the pisiform and hook of the hamate, in front of flexor retinaculum and pisohamate ligament;
· divides into deep and superficial branch;
· is covered by deep fascia and then by palmaris brevis (cutaneous muscle)
o 1) Superficial branch gives cutaneous branches to medial 1 1/2 fingers and motor branch to palmaris brevis. It communicates with the median nerve.
o 2) Deep branch supplies 3 hypothenar muscles and all short muscles of hand, except for the 5 muscles innervated by median nerve
HYPOTHENAR MUSCLES have a common origin from the flexor retinaculum, pisiform and hook of hamate.
o ABDUCTOR DIGITI V or MINIMI attaches to the base of the proximal phalanx of digit 5
o FLEXOR BREVIS DIGITI V or MINIMI attaches to the base of proximal phalanx of digit 5
o OPPONENS DIGITI V or MINIMI attaches to the 5th metacarpal bone.
· Are innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
Thenar muscles innervated by ULNAR NERVE
ADDUCTOR POLLICIS lies deep to the thenar muscles
· Attaches from the middle metacarpal and capitate
· To the base of 1st phalanx.
· Is innervated by the ulnar nerve.
Flexor pollicis brevis attaches to the base of proximal phalanx of digit 1
· Are innervated by median nerve (C8, T1) and the deep branch of ulnar nerve ( innervating the deep part of flexor pollicis brevis)
Q73. Differential diagnosis of arthritis affecting the right knee joint in a young patient include?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis-----SYMMETRICAL INVOLVEMENT MOST COMMONLY
B. Osteoarthritis-------B/L
C. Gonococcal arthritis
D. Tuberculous arthritis
E. Gout---- MC SITE GREAT TOE

Ans: C, D,
Q74. Displaced fracture of patella should be treated by?
A. Patellectomy
B. Wiring with absorable sutures
C. External fixators
D. POP cast
E. Tension band wiring

Ans: A, E

Q75. L-bupivacine can be used?
A. intrathecally
B. epidurally
C. intravenously
D. orally
E. via a nasogastric tube

Ans: B,


Q76. Erb's point is the point of confluence of?
A. C2, C3
B. C4, C5
C. C5, C6
D. C7, C8
E. C8, T1

Ans: c5, c6

Q77. Structures derived from the neural crest are?
A. Dorsal horn cells
B. Sympathetic ganglia
C. Cauda equina
D. Adrenal medulla
E. Adrenal cortex

Ans: B, D
Neural crest derivatives
1.spinal posterior nerve root ganglion
2.sympathetic ganglia
3.sensory ganglia of V, VII, VIII, IX, X cranial nerves.
4.dental papillae
5.chromaffin tissue
6.melanoblasts
7.pia and arachnoid mater

Q78. The blood supply of the stomach includes?
A. Splenic artery----- largest branch of celiac artery
B. Short gastric arteries------branch of splenic artery
C. Phrenic artery-----supplies diaphragm
D. Left gastric artery----smallest Br of celiac artery
E. Left gastroepiploic artery-----br of splenic artey

Ans: B, D, E
Q79. Superficial perineal muscles include?
A. Ischiocavernosus
B. Ileococcygeous
C. Pubococcygeous
D. Bulbospongiosus
E. Transversus perineii superficialis

Ans: A, D, E


Q80. Thenar muscles are supplied by?
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Anterior interosseous nerve
E. Posterior interosseous nerve

Ans: A, B

Q81. Left ureter is in close relation to?
A. Left renal artery
B. Gonadal vessels
C. Sigmoid mesocolon
D. Quadratus lumborum muscle
E. Iliac vessels
ANS:[b],[e]
Relation of left ureter
1.testicular artey
2.left colic artery
3.sigmoid colon

Posterior relation
1.internal iliac vessels

Anterior relations
1.ductus deferens
2.uterine artery

Q82. The true statement about stem cells include?
A. They divide to form different cell lines
B. They are used in gene therapy
C. They are terminally differentiated cells
D. The are present in peripheral circulation
E. They are incapable of division

Ans: A, B [A I P P G pgi answers]

Q83. The aortic opening transmits following structures?
A. Thoracic duct
B. Aorta
C. Sympathetic vein----passes behind medial arcuate ligament
D. Azygous vein
E. Hemiazygous vein

Ans: A, B,C, D,E
also left phrenic nerve,subcostal nerve.

Q84. Regarding Inguinal canal, true statements include?
A. It contains round ligament in females
B. The superficial ring is superomedial to pubic tubercle
C. The deep ring is an fascial condensation of fascia transversalis
D. It contains testicular artery and veins in males
E. It is intramuscular

Ans: A, B, C, and D

Q85. True statement is/are?
A. Frontal lobe is better developed in humans as compared to monkeys
B. The brain size is bigger in monkeys
C. Color vision is absent in monkeys
D. Brain body ratio is more in humans
E. There are more convolutions in brain of the monkeys

Q86. The technique (s) which differentiate between proteins on the base of their size (and not on charge) include?
A. Sedimentation
B. Electrolysis
C. Ion exchanage chromatography
D. Paper chromatography
E. SDS &#8211; PAGE

ans: [a] rest all depend on charge

Q87. True statement (s) about reverse transcriptase ?
A. Used in gene therapy
B. Involves formation of DNA from RNA
C. Involves formation of RNA from DNA
D. Requires NADPH
E. Useful in HIV infection
ans: [a],[b],[e]
Q88. Formation of hydrogen peroxide requires following enzymes?
A. Ligase
B. Dehydrogenase
C. Oxygenase
D. Oxidase
E. Peroxidase
ans:[e]

Q89. Repeat DNA segements are seen in?
A. Telomeres
B. DNA satellites
C. Cloned DNA
D. Histone DNA complex

Q90. DNA formed using reverse transcriptaseQ90. "Triple repeat sequence" diseases include?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C. Ataxia telangiectasia
D. Hungtinton's chorea
E. Spinocerebellar ataxia

Ans: D, E
Other examples r----
1.Spinocerebellar atrophy
2.Myotonica Dystrophic
3.Friedreich Ataxia
4.Fragile X syndrome
5.Kennedy disease
6.Huntington's disease


Q91. Introduction of gene into the cells, in gene therapy is done using?
A. electroporation
B. Intraporation
C. Intranuclear injection
D. Peroxisomal liposomes
E. All
Ans: [a], [c],[d]
All above methods r used 4 nontargeted delivery.
For targeted delivery
1. ligand DNA conjugates
2. Adenovirus ligand DNA conjugates
Q92. Among the follownig disease, the ones that have enzyme defects, include?
A. Ataxia telangiectasia
B. Achondroplasia
C. Phenylketonuria-----
D. von Willebrand's disease
E. Alkaptonuria----homogentesic oxidase
Ans: [c], [e]

Q93. True statements about iron absorption include?
A. It occurs in duodenum-----distal duodenum and jejunum
B. increased in decreased body iron stores
C. increased by increase in gastric acidity
D. absorption mainly occurs in ferrous state
E. decreased in inflammatory bowel disease
ans: [a], [b],[c],

Q94. Regulation of Phosphofructokinase I and II , and pyruvate kinase is seen in?
A. Brain
B. Muscle
C. Skin
D. Liver
E. RBCs


Q95. All of the following are treatments for hypercalcemia, except?
A. Levamisole
B. Plicamycin
C. Streptozocin
D. Saline diuresis and hydrocholorothiazide
E. Gallium nitrate

Ans: B, D, E
other drugs used
1.steroids---calciuric action
2.frusemide with forced diuresis
3.bisphosphonates
4.methramycin
5.calcitonin


Q96. Features of progressive systemic sclerosis are?
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Antifibrillin antibodies
C. Calcinosis cutis
D. Raynaud's phenomenon
E. Sclerodactyly

Ans: B,C, D, E

Q97. Acute phase reactants include?
A. Albumin
B. Alpha 1 amyloid protein
C. Fibrinogen
D. Haptoglobulins
E. Globulins

Ans: B, C, D



Q98. Increased LAP scores are seen in ?
A. Chronic myeloid leukemia----dec LAP
B. Hodgkin's disease
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria-----dec LAP
E. Polycythemia

Ans: [c], [e]


Q99. The true statement (s) about acanthosis nigricans include?
A. It is associated with obesity
B. It is associated with insulin resistance
C. There is hyperpigmentation
D. It occurs in axillary region
E. It is a marker for internal malignancies

Ans: A, B, C, D, E

Q100. Regarding bronchial asthma, the true statements is/are ?
A. Increased FVC--------normal or dec
B. Decreased PEF
C. Increased DLCO------dec
D. Increased FRC
E. Increased Tidal volume-----dec

Ans: B, D

Q101. Reduction of blood cholesterol levels is achieved by?
A. Regular exercise
B. Increased vegetable and fibre in diet
C. Increased saturated fatty acid in diet
D. Decreased total fat intake
E. Increased polyunsaturated fatty acid in diet

Ans: A, B, D, E


Q102. All of the following statements are true about a man suffering from low back pain with progressive stiffness of the back, except?
A. Association with HLA B 27
B. Association with Anterior uveitis
C. More commonly seen in females
D. Xrays of Sacroiliac joints may be helpful
E. Xrays of Abdomen is useful

Ans: [c], [e] all features of ankylosing spondylitis

Q103. Diseases caused by Prions include ?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Creutz feldt Jacob's disease
C. Familial fatal insomnia
D. Gerstmann Strausler Disease
E. Hungtington's disease

Ans: B, C, D

Prion diseases in humans are &#8211;
1. Creutz Feldt Jacob disease
2. Gerstmann Straussler Scheinker disease
3. Kuru
4. Familial fatal insomnia
5. Sporadic fatal insomnia

Q105. Palpable Purpura is seen in?
A. TTP
B. HUS
C. DIC
D. Scurvy
E. Henoch Schonlein Purpura

Ans: E
Palpable purpura
1,Acute meningococcemia
2.Disseminated gonococcal infection
3.Infective endocarditis
4.Polyarteritis nodosa

Q106. Peripheral neuropathy is seen in all of the following conditions, except?
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Polyarteritis Nodosa
C. SLE
D. Tuberculosis
E. Vitamin B 12 deficiency

Ans: D
go thru table no.337-3 on p-2501 in Harry 15th Ed
Q107. Among the following, the ones that predispose a patient to hepatic encephalopathy is/are ?
A. Bacterial peritonitis
B. Constipation
C. Dehydration
D. Haemorrhage
E. Hyperkalemia------hypokalemia, not hyper

Ans: A, B, C, D
also occurs in ---
1.azotemia
2.hypernatremia
3.hypoxia
4. Alkalosis
Q108. True statment(s) regarding alpha - 1 - antitrypsin deficiency include?
A. It is inherited as autosomal recessive--------autosomal dominant
B. It is associated with enzyme defect-------antiprotease deficiency
C. It has an association with emphysema-----causes panacinar type
D. There is presence of Orcein positive granules in the liver
E. There is presence of PAS positive diastase resistant granules in the liver------true

Ans: B, C, and E
Q109. Transient weakness is seen in?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Lambert Eaton syndrome
C. Guillain Barre syndrome
D. Myasthenia gravis
E. Multiple sclerosis

ans: [a], [b], [d], [e] ref to table 22-3 on page 122 in harry 15th Ed

Q110. The infusion of glucose in a suspected case of hypoglycemia coma is based upon?
A. Clincial assessment only
B. After blood glucose estimation
C. After urinary glucose determination
D. After excluding electrolyte imbalance
E. After endocrinologist consultation
Ans: A

Q111. Extrahepatic biliary obstruction is associated with?
A. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
B. Ascites
C. Malabsorption
D. serum alkaline phosphatase
E. Pale stools

Ans: A, C, D, E

Q112. Secretory diarrhoea is caused by?
A. Carcinoid tumor
B. Gastrinoma
C. Lactase deficiency----- osmotic d&#8217;hea
D. Mastocytosis
E. Short bowel syndrome---- osmotic d&#8217;hea

Ans: A, B, D

Q113. Herpes Zoster infection in a patient suggests that he is suffering from?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. HIV
C. Leukemia
D. Lymphoma
E. Diabetes mellitus
ans: [b], [c], [d]

Q114. Sestamibi is used in diagnosis of?--------REF TO TECHNETIUM SCAN
A. Adrenal tumors
B. Goitres
C. Ectopic parathyroid tissue
D. Parathyroid adenomas
E. Parathyroid hyperplasia
ANS: [C], [D], [E],


Q115. Features of Schizophrenia include?
A. Avolition
B. Flight of ideas
C. Made effect
D. Thought broadcasting
E. Though insertion

Ans: C, D, E, AIPPG

Q116. Flight of ideas is seen in?
A. Mania
B. Schizophrenia----thought block, mutism
C. Depression-----dec speech
D. Obsessive disorders
E. Hysteria
Ans: [a]

Q117. True statement regarding the tonsils include?
A. Lies on superior constrictor muscle
B. Vertical axis is directed anteromedially
C. Most common cause of tonsillitis is Streptococci
D. Infection spreads to jugulodigastric nodes
E. Pain of tonsillitis is referred to ears

Ans: A, C, D, E


Q118. Functional endoscopic sinus surgery is indicated in ?
A. Allergic polyps
B. Frontoethmoidal mucocele
C. Inverted papilloma
D. Maxillary polyp
E. Mucoromycosis

Ans:[b],[d].[a]
Especially used 4 ethmoidal polp


Q119. True statement about supraglottic carcinoma is/are ?
A. It is more common in females
B. Cigarette smoking is most important predisposing factor
C.hot potato voice seen
D. Rarely presents with neck nodes----------MC mode of presentation
E. Treated by surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy

Ans: B, D


Q120. True about otosclerosis is/are ?
A. More common in females
B. Causes sensorineural deafness------ noninfective conductive deafness
C. Aggravated in pregnancy
D. Autosomal dominant inheritance in > 50%
E. Treated with sodium fluoride

Ans: A, C, D, E
Q121. CSF - Rhinorrhoea is associated with fractures of ?
A. Nasal bone
B. Zygomatic bone
C. Mandibular bone
D. Frontoethmodial fracture
E. Lefort-I
ans: [d]
Q122. All of the following sinus drain into middle meatus except?
A. Anterior ethmoidal sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Sphenoidal sinus
E. Posterior ethmoidal sinus

Ans: A, B, C


Q123. The age at which an infant can follow horizontally for 180 degress and has almost full head control but cannot sit without support is?
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
E. 10 months
Ans: 6 mths
Q124. rue statement about nephrotic sydrome in a patient suffering from minimal change disease is?
A. Minimal change disease is the commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
B. Hematuria is a prominent presenting feature--------seen in acute glomerulonephritis
C. Treatment is initiated only after biopsy
D. Steroids are used in the treatment
E. Cyclophosphamide and levamisole are used in the management-------------------- 2nd line if steroids fail

Ans: A, D, E



Q125. Features of childhood rickets include all of the following except?
A. Decreased calcium
B. Weight gain
C. Increased alkaline phosphatase
D. Large anterior fontanelle
E. Excessive sweating
Ans: [a], [c],[d]


Q126. A 2 yrs old child is suffering from leukemia. The changes that may be present in the bones include?
A. Lytic lesions
B. Osteosclerotic lesions
C. Osteoporotic lesions
D. Periosteal new bone formation
E. Metaphyseal band
Ans: [a]


Q127. Physiological jaundice?
A. Appears within 24 hours-------after 24 hrs
B. Occurs due to increased RBC destruction
C. Occurs due to biliary obstruction
D. Lasts upto 3 weeks----------not more than 2 wks
E. Is an indication to stop breast feeding
ans: [b],

Q128. True statement(s) above apoptosis includes?
A. Intranuclear chromosomal clumping
B. Caspases are activated
C. Macrophages engulf remnants of apoptotic material
D. Lymphocytes and neutrophil migrate to apoptotic site
E. Vacuoles in lysosomes is characterstic feature

Ans: A, B, C

Q129. In Acute inflammation, the mediator for migration and attachment of neutrophils to the endothelium is?
A. Adhesins
B. Integrins
C. Perforins
D. Opsonins
E. Selectins

Ans: Integrins


Q130. Among the following, the ones that are premalignant are?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Hyperplastic polyp
C. Menetrier's disease
D. Peutz Jegher's sydrome
E. Ulcerative colitis

Ans: A, E



Q131. Among the following, all are premalignant, except?
A. Familial adenomatosis polyposis
B. Hyperplastic polyp
C. Menetrier's disease
D. Peutz Jegher's syndrome
E. Villous adenoma

Ans: D

Q132. Factors predisposing colonic cancer include?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn's disease
C. Tuberculosis
D. Familial adenomatous polyposis
E. Animal fat consumption
Ans: [a], [b], [d], [e]

Q133. The cells seen in Hodgkin's disease are all of the following, except?
A. Langerhans cells
B. Lacunar cells
C. Reed sternberg cells
D. Hodgkin's cells
E. L & H cells

Ans: B, C
Q134. Factors promoting tumor growth include?
A. &#8595; p53
B. &#8593; bcl-2
C. &#8593; bcl-2: bax ratio
D. &#8595; bcl-2: bax ratio
E. &#8595; bcl-2

Q135. Platelet dysfunction is seen in?
A. Bernard Soulier disease
B. Glanzmann's disease
C. HUS
D. Polycythemia
E. Von willebrandt's disease

ans: [a], [b], [e]
Q136. Increased thrombosis of arteries is seen in ?
A. Protein C deficiency
B. Protein S deficiency
C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
D. Decreased Antithrombin III
E. Increased Fibrinogen

Ans: A, B, D,


Q137. Call Exner bodies are seen in?
A. Brenner's tumor
B. Endodermal sinus tumor
C. Embryonal cell carcinoma
D. Leydig cell tumor
E. Granulosa cell tumor

Ans: E

Q138. Splenic dysfuntion is seen in?
A. SLE
B. Tropical splenomegaly
C. Coeliac sprue
D. Polycythemia
E. Weber Christian disease
Ans: [a], [b], [d]
Q139. The etiologic agents impicated in the pathogenesis of coronary artery disease include?
A. CMV
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Herpes virus
D. Hemophilus influenzae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
ans: [e]
Q140. Inheritance of mitochondrial DNA is ?
A. Paternal
B. Horizontal
C. X linked
D. maternal
e.Vertical

ans: [d]
Q141. All of the following are autosomal recessive, except?
A. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
B. Gaucher's disease
C. Hereditary hemochromatosis
D. Hereditary spherocytosis
E. Phenylketonuria
Ans: [a], [b], [c],[e]

Q142. Regarding the site of lesion in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, true statement (s) include?
A. Anterior horn cells
B. Posterior horn cells
C. Pyramidal tracts
D. Neuromuscular junction
E. Extrapyramidal tracts
Ans: [a] both UMN and LMN r involved

Q143. Anti-parkinsonian drugs include?
A. Amatadine
B. Mazindol
C. Levodopa
D. Metronidazole
E. Methyl phenidate

Ans: A, C

Q144. Complications associated with the use of Dapsone therapy include?
A. Jaundice
B. Rashes
C. Bone marrow suppression
D. Hemolysis in G6PD deficient patients
E. Exacerbation of leprosy

Ans: A, B, D, E


Q145. Antibiotics which are used as anticancer drugs include?
A. Actinomycin D
B. Bleomycin
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Methotrexate
E. Plicamycin

Ans: A, B, E

Q146. True statement (s) regarding Esmolol include?
A. Can be used in asthma--- it is selective &#946;1 blocker
B. Can be used in renal disease
C. Is given as continuous i.v. infusion
D. Is non-selective beta blocker
E. Actions last more than 6 hrs------ultra short acting
Ans: A, B, C



Q147. Among the following, the ones that are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Paroxetine
C. Fluvoxamine
D. Mirtazapine--------- Enhances release of both Noradrenaline & Serotonin by blocking alpha2 receptors.
E. Venlafaxine ---------Serotonin & Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor.

Ans: A, B, C

Q148. Prostaglandins with vasodilator properties include?
A. Leukotriene D4
B. PGE2
C. PGF2&#945;
D. TXA2
E. Prostacyclin

Ans: B, C, E


Q149. Warfarin induced Skin necrosis occurs due to?
A. Antithrombin III deficiency
B. Protein C deficiency
C. Protein S deficiency
D. Increased Factor VII levels
E. Increased Platelet counts
Ans: [b]
Occurs on 3rd &#8211; 10th day of therapy
Unrelated to dose or underlying d/s
MC site &#8211; breast , thigh, buttocks
Treatment: vit k and heparin

Q150. True statement(s) regarding propranolol include?
A. It is a non selective beta blocker
B. It does not have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
C. It has a short half life
D. It increases the airway resistance
E. It can be given to reduce anxiety
Ans: [a], [b]


Q151. Drugs causing Torsades de pointes include?
A. Digoxin
B. Disopyramide
C. Lignocaine
D. Procainamide
E. Quinidine

ans:[ B], [d], [e].
other drugs---------
1. amiodarone
2. astemazole
3. cisapride
4. clomipramine
5. desipramine
6. erythromycin
Q152. Drugs causing bone marrow suppression in a patient suffering from HIV infection are?
A. Nelfinavir
B. Didanosine
C. Indinavir
D. Steroids
E. Zalcitabine

Q153. Drugs that are effective against anaerobes include?
A. Amikacin
B. Aztreonam
C. Imipenems
D. Metronidazole
E. Vancomycin
ans:[c], [d]

Q154. Newer anti-histamines are?
A. Azelastine
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Desloratadine
D. Fexofenadine
E. Levalorphenol
Ans [c], [d] other egs----
6. terfenadine
7. astemazole
8. loratidine
9. cetrizine
Q155. The true statement about Vancomycin is/are ?
A. It acts on cell wall
B. Useful against gram negative organisms------g+ve bacteria
C. Can also be used for anaerobic organisms----no
D. Rash is one of the side effects-----skin allergy occurs
E. Useful in MRSA

Ans: A, E

Q156. The drugs that are preferred in a patient who develops cyclosporine induced hypertension are?
A. Beta blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Clonidine
D. Enalapril
E. Frusemide
Ans: [b] ref: cmdt

Q157. A 24 yr old patient was brought to emergency department with a history of trauma, blood pressure 100/60 mm of Hg and tachycardia. Bedside USG revealed splenic laceration. I.V. Fluids were administered and his blood pressure stabilized at 120/70mm of Hg. Further management includes?
A. Monitoring and surgery only if patient deteriorates
B. Immediate laparotomy and splenic repair
C. Immediate laparotomy and splenectomy
D. Laparoscopic splenic repair

Ans: A, D

Q158. Tracheostomy may be required in ?
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Flail chest injury
C. Fracture of pelvis
D. Fracture of femur
E. Tetanus
Ans: [e]

Q159. Swan Ganz Catheter is used to know?
A. Pulmonary artery pressure
B. Capillary wedge pressure
C. Collapsing pressure of pulmonary vessels
D. Oxygen saturation in pulmonary vessels
E. Oxygen saturation in capillaries

Ans: A, B
Swan ganz