AIPPG PGI 2003 Solved paper.
PGI chandigarh answers with some explanations.

Q1. A 24 yr old patient was brought to emergency department with a history of trauma, blood pressure 100/60 mm of Hg and tachycardia. Bedside USG revealed splenic laceration. I.V. Fluids were administered and his blood pressure stabilized at 120/70mm of Hg. Further management includes?
A. Monitoring and surgery only if patient deteriorates
B. Immediate laparotomy and splenic repair
C. Immediate laparotomy and splenectomy
D. Laparoscopic splenic repair

Ans: A, D
Q2.True about Barret's oesophagus is/are ?
A. Causative agent is Herpes virus
B. Occurs due to chronic reflux oesophagitis
C. Is associated with oesophageal varices
D. Here squamous epithelium is replaced with intestinal type
E. Is a premalignant condition

Ans: B, D, E

Q3.Catheter insertion per urethra, is done in all of the following conditions, except?
A. BPH
B. Urethral trauma
C. Prostatic cancer
D. Postoperative retention of urine
E. Urethral stricture

Ans: B

Q4.The true statement (s) about hernia is/are?
A. Inguinal Hernias are more common on the right side
B. Femoral hernia is the commonest type in females
C. Femoral hernia is more common in females
D. Strangulated hernia may be asymptomatic
E. Strangulation is more common in a direct inguinal hernia

Ans: A, C, E

Q5.For diagnosis in a patient presenting with a breast lump, the best investigation is?
A. FNAC
B. Bidirectional mammorgraphy
C. CT Scan
D. MRI
E. Angiography
Ans[a]



Q6. The major criteria four HIV include?
A. Cough > 1 months-------minor criteria
B. Diarrhoea > 1 months
C. Weight loss > 10%
D. Fever > 1 months
E. Oropharyngeal candidiasis--------minor criteria

Ans: [B], [C], [D]

Q8. The following induce weakness in the contraction of the heart?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyopphosphatemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Metabolic acidosis
E. Respiratory alkalosis

Q10. Complete palsy of the third cranial nerve is associated with?
A. Preservation of accomodation
B. Ptosis
C. Paralysis of superior and inferior rectus
D. Dilated pupils
E. Medial deviation of eyes

Ans: B, C, D, [ref: basak]
{Preservation of accommodation: papillary reaction and accommodation preserved bcoz E.W.N normal
[e] : lateral rectus acting so deviated outward}


Q13. Snow ball opacities in the vitreous humor, are seen in the eye in?
A. Anterior uveitis
B. Endothelial dystrophy
C. Pars planitis
D. Retinitis pigmentosa
E. Rheumatoid arthritis

Q14. A patient of retinal detachment may be investigated by?
A. Direct ophthalmoscopy
B. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
C. USG
D. Gonioscopy
E. Triple mirror test

ans: B,E,C,D [ref: basak]
{Indirect ophthalmoscopy: used to enhance visualization of extreme peripheral retina. USG: Used if media hazy. Triple mirror test;to check breaks in retina and vitreous condition}


Q15. The substance used in intraocular lens is?
A. Glass
B. Fibre
C. Methyl polysiloxane
D. Poly methyl metharcylate
E. Silicone
ans: D,E [REF :BASAK}
SILICONE USED 4 FOLDABLE LENSES , ALSOpoly hydroxy ethyl metha acryl ate.


Q16. Among the following, the tests that would be useful to diagnose a case of cataract include?
A. USG
B. Slit lamp examination
C. Contrast sensitivity
D. Colour vision test
E. Gonioscopy

Ans:A,B,D
A.USG---------to calculate power of lens to be placed and check retina and vitreous
B. Slit lamp examination-----4 detail examination of eye and to know type of cataract
C Colour vision test---------part of macular function test
d. Tonomretry done to check IOP if any abnormality found then gonioscopy.


Q17. Features of spring catarrah include?
A. Arlt's line
B. Horner's spots
C. Tantra's spots
D. Follicular hyperplasia
E. Papillary hyperplasia
Ans: A, B, E [REF:BASAK]
REST R SEEN IN TRACHOMA
Q18. True statement about rigor mortis includes all of the following, except?
A. First appears in the neck
B. During summer starts by 24 - 48 hrs
C. During winter starts by 48 - 72 hrs
D. Appears and disappears in ascending and descending order
E. Occurs early following drowning

Q19. Putrefaction is delayed in poisoning due to?
A. Arsenic
B. Mercury
C. Nitric acid
D. Lead
E. Iron

Ans: A

Q20. Activated charcoal is used in poisoning with?
A. Alcohol
B. Arsenic
C. Barbiturates
D. Lead
E. Mercury

ans: [b], [c]


Q21. A patient is brought with opium poisoning. The antagonists to opium include?
A. Buprenorphine
B. Meptazinol
C. Nalorphine
D. Neostigmine
E. Pyridostigmine

Ans: C

Q22. Among the following, the ones that are organophosphates include?
A. Dieldrin
B. Kepone
C. Malathion
D. Parathion
E. Propoxur
ans:C,D [ref:park]
Dieldrin -----organochlorine
Kepone------organochlorine
Propoxur-----carbamate
Other commonly asked Opcompds
1.chlorthione
2.diazinone
3.feninthione
4.abate
5.fenitrothione

Q23. Among the following, the drugs that are of use in a case of Ectopic pregnancy include?
A. Adriamycin
B. Actinomycin D
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Methotrexate
E. Potassium fluoride

Ans: D
Potassium chloride can also be used.

Q24. The tests that may help to know the occurence of ovulation in a female include?
A. USG
B. Levels of progesterone
C. Temperature changes
D. Levels of oestradiol
E. Examination of cervical mucus
ans:A,B,C,E
USG ----- ova can be seen, ruptured ovarian membrane
Levels of progesterone------increased becoz of stimulation by LH
Temperature changes------ inc in body temp by 0.5`C

Examination of cervical mucus------ spinbarkeit phenomenon, excessive strechability


Q25. True about Complete Hydatidiform mole?
A. it is associated with Diploidy------complete mole[46xx]
B. it is associated with Triploidy------partial mole
C. it is treated with cyclophosphamide-------methotrexate used
D. Malignant change is seen in 2% cases-----2-10%
E. it is associated with abortion
ans: [a] ,[d], [ref: dutta]



Q26. True about Stein Levinthal syndrome is?
A. Seen in postmenopausal women
B. May present with amenorrhoea / oligomenorrhoea
C. Follicular cysts may be present
D. LH levels are increased
E. There is hypertrophy of theca interna

Ans: B, C, D

Q27. True abotut testicular feminization syndrome is/are ?
A. 46 XY
B. 46 XX
C. Female genitalia
D. Ambigous genitalia
E. Well developed mullerian structures
ans: A, C
Phenotypically male with well dev breasts but lack axillary and pubic hair. Small blind vagina, mullerian dysgenesis.
Testis sec testosterone present.
Q28. The engaging diameter in brow presentation is?
A. Mentovertical
B. Submentovertical
C. Suboccipitofrontal
D. Suboccipitobregmatic
E. Submentobregmatic

Ans. A, B


Q29. The causes of Breech presentation are?
A. Placenta praevia
B. Previous caesarian section
C. Contracted pelvis
D. Oligohydramnios
E. Hydrocephalus

Ans: A, C, D, E

Q30. Management of a 26 yrs woman with dead fetus in transverse lie, with hand prolapse, now in second stage of labour, includes?
A. Decapitation
B. Craniotomy
C. Amniotomy
D. Caesarian section
E. Cleidotomy

ans: [a], [d]

Q31. reatment of Cervical CIS in a 45 yrs old woman presenting with bleeding per vaginum, includes?
A. Cautery
B. Conization
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Cryosurgery
E. Laser surgery
ans:B
best tratment in this case will br hysterectomy .[a], [d] , [e] r done in CIN I & II.


Q32. Diabetes mellitus in pregnancy, is associated with following abnormalities in the foetus?
A. VSD
B. IUGR----- generally big baby
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hyperglycemia------ hypoglycemia
E. Neural tube defects
ans: [c],[a], [e]
Other metabolic abnormalities
1.dec Mg
1. inc bilirubin
2. sacral agenesis highly specific of diabetic mother

Q33. Foetal cardiac motion can be observed by transvaginal USG, at early as?
A. 4 weeks
B. 6 weeks
C. 7 weeks
D. 8 weeks
E. 10 weeks
Ans:[b]
for transabdominal scan ----- 7 wks


Q34. In a woman suffering from Complicated PID, the treatment modalities include?
A. Culdocentesis---------colpotomy is done for pelvic abscess
B. Broad spectrum antibiotics
C. Laparoscopic assisted vaginal hysterectomy------trans abdominal hysterectomy in chronic cases. Not laproscopic becoz excess adhesions
D. Laparotomy
E. Drainage of Tubo-ovarain abscess

ans:[b],[d],[e]


Q35. The etiologic agent implicated in causation of carcinoma of cervix is?
A. HPV types - 6, 11
B. HPV types - 11, 22
C. HPV types - 16, 18
D. HPV types - 21, 22
E. HPV types - 31, 33
ans:[c],[e]


Q36. Cervicits may be caused by?
A. Staphylococci
B. Pseudomonas
C. Candida albicans
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
E. Chlamydia trachomatis

Ans: D,E most common cause is gonorrhoea [ref: robbins]

Q37. True statement (s) about bacterial vaginosis include?
A. pH of vaginal is < 4.5-------- >4.5
B. Amine test is positive------ fishy odour
C. Clue cells are seen--------diagnostic
D. No pus cells are seen in the discharge-----no WBC
E. Metronidazole is used in treatment
Ans:[b],[c],[d],[e] [ref: Shaw}

Q38. True about Intrahepatic cholestasis in pregnancy is/are ?
A. Jaundice is present
B. Pruritus is a feature
C. Associated with increased maternal mortality
D. Associated with increased foetal abnormality
E. Serum bilirubin is < 5mg/dL
ans: [a], [b],[e]
It is 2nd MC cause for jaundice in pregnancy.first being viral hepatitis.occurs MC in last trimester . resolves within 2 wks postpartum.


Q39. A 22 year old lady gave birth to a 2.2 kg baby. Her date of LMP was not known. The approximate age of the baby can be calculated using?
A. Helix of ear
B. Birth weight
C. Articular cartilage
D. Anterior fontanelle
E. Sole crease

Q40. The immunoglobin that can be transferred to the foetus transplacentally is?
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. IgD

Ans: B
Q41. The immunoglobulin activating classical complement pathway is?
A. IgG
B. IgD
C. IgA------activates alternative pathway
D. IgM
E. IgE
ans: [a] ,[d] ref:ananthnarayan

Q42. A non-alcoholic, diabetic patient with increased serum ferritin levels and hyperpigmentation, may be suffering from ?
A. Aceruloplasminemia
B. Atransferrinemia
C. Sideroblastic anaemia
D. Thalassemia
E. Wilson's disease

Ans: B ref to haemochromatosis


Q43. Diabetes mellitus is associated with all of the following except?
A. Encephalopathy
B. Myopathy
C. Myelopathy
D. Myelitis
E. Neuropathy

Ans: C, D

Q44. A patient presented with headache, and his blood pressure was found to be 190/120. The management may be with?
A. Beta blockers
B. Oral enalapril
C. Sublingual nifedipine
D. Intravenous enalapril
E. I.V. nitroglycerine

Ans: B, c, a
Q45. The hormone that is predominantly secreted by an extra-adrenal phaeochromocytoma is?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Epinephrine----------------if associated with MEN or in intraardrenal tumor
D.phenylalanine
E. VMA
Ans: b
Q46. There is an association of pulmonary hypertension with?
A. Myocardial infarction
B. Bronchial asthma
C. Congestive cardiac failure
D. Interstitial lung fibrosis
E. Mitral stenosis

Ans: A, B, C, D, E

Q47. Paraneoplastic effects in a patient of bronchogenic carcinoma, include?
A. Addison's disease
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Jaundice
E. Lytic bone lesions

Ans: A, B, C,


Q48. "Susruha Samhita" was translated by?
A. Bernard
B. Bagha bhatta
C. Milliard
D. Celsius
E. Maurice

Q49. A patient was brought to the emergency with dehydration, Blood pressure was 90/70 mm of Hg, and blood examination revealed a pH of 7.28. Further management includes?
A. Adrenaline injection
B. Potassiym supplementation
C. Dopamine infusion
D. Bicarbonate injection
E. I.V. fluids to correct dehydration
ans: [e]

Q50. Acute injury to lungs is associated with?
A. pericardial effusion
B. pulmonary parenchymal oedema
C. normal pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
D. selective dilatation of pulmonary blood vessels
E. Shunting of blood

Ans: B,C,D, E case of A.R.SD

Q51. Vanishing bile duct syndrome is assciated with?
A. Polyarteritis nodosa
B. Graft verus host disease
C. Hepatitis C
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Non - cirrhotic portal fibrosis

Also called ALEGILLE SYNDROME


Q52. Scraping of the skin is useful in diagnosis of which of the following:
A. Botryomycosis
B. Coccidiodomycosis
C. Dermatomycosis
D. Herpes virus infection
E. Sporothrix

Ans: C


Q53. True statement(s) about impetigo include?
A. caused by staphylococci------phage type 71
B. caused by streptococci----------Gp A beta hemolytic streptococci
C. non contagious------------contagious
D. intraepidermal-------------epidermal
E. does not form scar on healing
Ans:[a], [b], [e]

Q54. Left border of the heart is formed by which of the following?
A. Arch of aorta
B. Ascending aorta
C. Right ventricle
D. Pulmonary artery
E. Pulomnary vein

Ans: A, C, D

Q55. Egg shell calcification is seen in?
A. Berylliosis
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. Lymphoma
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Silicosis

Ans: C, D, E


Q56. Among the following, the tumors that are sensitive to radiotherapy, include?
A. Adenocarcinoma of the stomach------------surgery is best
B. Leukemia----------chemotherapy
C. Lymphoma

D. Sarcoma-----------------surgery
E. Seminoma
ANS: [C], [E]

Q57. Radiological features of Osteosarcoma include?
A. Soap bubble appearance
B. Codman's triangle
C. Onion peel appearance
D. Sun ray appearance
E. New bone formation

Ans: [B], [D], [E].
Q58. Honey comb appearance is seen in?
A. Aspergilloma
B. Bronchogenic carcinoma
C. Interstitial fibrosis of lung
D. Silicosis
E. Tuberculosis

Ans: C, D, E

Q59. The causes of posterior mediastinal mass include?
A. Anterior thoracic meningocele
B. Bronchogenic cyst
C. Lymphoma
D. Neuroenteric cyst
E. Neurogenic cyst

Ans: D, E

Q60. Epstein Barr virus is implicated in causation of ?
A. Burkitt's lymphoma
B. Hogkin's lymphoma-------can cause acc to Robbins
C. Nasopharyngeal carcinoma-----anaplastic variety
D. Renal cell carcinoma
E. Hepatocellular carcinoma

Ans: A, C

Other lesions caused by it; ----
1.oral hairy leukoplakia
2.chronic fatigue syndrome
1. tonsillar Ca
2. duncan&#8217;s d/s

Q61. Among the following microorganisms, the ones that posses a capsule are?
A. Cryptococci
B. Candida albicans
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Histoplasma capsulatum

Ans: A, C,
Other important capsulated bacterium is pneumoccocus. India ink used to demo capsule.
Q62. The causative agent(s) of pseudomembranous colitis include?
A. Staphylococci
B. Streptococci
C. Pseudomonas
D. Clostridium difficile
E. Candida albicans
Ans:[d]


Q63. In a precipitation reaction, prozone formation ?
A. is due to excess antigens
B. is due to excess antibodies
C. is due to broken antibodies
D. is due to false negative reaction
E. is due to false positive reaction

Ans: A

Q64. True statment(s) about babesiosis include?
A. It is caused by Babesia microti
B. Causes bone marrow suppression------- causes renal failure
C. The organism is found within RBC's
D. The organism is found within WBC's
E. Chloroquine is used in its treatment-----------quinine with clindamycin / azithromycin

ans: [a], [c],
Q65. True about cerebral malaria include?
A. Most commonly caused by P.vivax-------P. Falciparum
B. Pathogenesis involves ischemia following capillary blockage
C. There is hyperviscosity of blood----------hypo
D. There is hyperglycemia--------hypoglycemia
E. Signs of meningitis may be absent
Ans: [b],[e]
Features
1. Diffuse symmetrical encephalopathy
2. Focal neurological signs unusual.
3. Plantar reflex may be plantar or extensor.
4. Abdominal and cremastric &#8211;absent
5. 15% will have retinal h&#8217;age.

Q66. True statement about Typhoid is/are ?
A. The bacteria are transported in water
B. Subclinical cases are rare-------common
C. Chronic carrier state is common
D. Widal test is positive in the 1st week-----2nd week
E. Ty21a is an oral vaccine

Ans: C, E
Remember BASU
1st wk--- Blood
2ndwk----widal
3rd-----stool
4th wk -------urine
Q67. Among the following, the ones that affect metaphyses are?
A. Osteoclastoma------epiphysis
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Ewing's sarcoma-----diaphysis
E. Metaphyseal fractures

Ans: B, C, E

Q68. The commonly affected site by adventitious bursitis, due to tuberculosis, are?
A. Bursa at Greater trochanter of femur
B. Metatarsal bursa
C. Subolecranon bura
D. Prepatellar bursa
E. Subacromial bursa
{Ans:[b] ref: bailey}

Q69. Caries spine is associated with all of the following, except?
A. Night sweats
B. Weight gain
C. Gibbus
D. Lordosis
E. Spasticity-----1st sign
Ans: [b] caries spine~ TB



Q70. Rocker bottom foot deformity is seen in ?
A. Over correction of CTEV
B. Congenital vertical talus
C. Forefoot correction with persistent equinus deformity
D. Posteromedial soft tissue contractures
E. Gracilis abnormality
Ans: [a], [b]
Q71. For primary bone grafting, the best donor site is?
A. Olecranon
B. Pelvis
C. Fibula
D. Greater trochanter of femur
E. Medial malleolus
Q72. [A patient has lower Ulnar nerve palsy. He will show?
A. Thenar wasting------median nerve
B. Weakness of hand movements
C. Loss of abduction of thumb
D. Loss of extension at carpometacarpal joints
E. Sensory loss over dorsal surface of medial 4 fingers
Ans: [b] becoz supply dorsal and palmar interroseous.The ulnar nerve, in the hand Passes between the pisiform and hook of the hamate, in front of flexor retinaculum and pisohamate ligament;
· divides into deep and superficial branch;
· is covered by deep fascia and then by palmaris brevis (cutaneous muscle)
o 1) Superficial branch gives cutaneous branches to medial 1 1/2 fingers and motor branch to palmaris brevis. It communicates with the median nerve.
o 2) Deep branch supplies 3 hypothenar muscles and all short muscles of hand, except for the 5 muscles innervated by median nerve
HYPOTHENAR MUSCLES have a common origin from the flexor retinaculum, pisiform and hook of hamate.
o ABDUCTOR DIGITI V or MINIMI attaches to the base of the proximal phalanx of digit 5
o FLEXOR BREVIS DIGITI V or MINIMI attaches to the base of proximal phalanx of digit 5
o OPPONENS DIGITI V or MINIMI attaches to the 5th metacarpal bone.
· Are innervated by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve.
Thenar muscles innervated by ULNAR NERVE
ADDUCTOR POLLICIS lies deep to the thenar muscles
· Attaches from the middle metacarpal and capitate
· To the base of 1st phalanx.
· Is innervated by the ulnar nerve.
Flexor pollicis brevis attaches to the base of proximal phalanx of digit 1
· Are innervated by median nerve (C8, T1) and the deep branch of ulnar nerve ( innervating the deep part of flexor pollicis brevis)
Q73. Differential diagnosis of arthritis affecting the right knee joint in a young patient include?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis-----SYMMETRICAL INVOLVEMENT MOST COMMONLY
B. Osteoarthritis-------B/L
C. Gonococcal arthritis
D. Tuberculous arthritis
E. Gout---- MC SITE GREAT TOE

Ans: C, D,
Q74. Displaced fracture of patella should be treated by?
A. Patellectomy
B. Wiring with absorable sutures
C. External fixators
D. POP cast
E. Tension band wiring

Ans: A, E

Q75. L-bupivacine can be used?
A. intrathecally
B. epidurally
C. intravenously
D. orally
E. via a nasogastric tube

Ans: B,


Q76. Erb's point is the point of confluence of?
A. C2, C3
B. C4, C5
C. C5, C6
D. C7, C8
E. C8, T1

Ans: c5, c6

Q77. Structures derived from the neural crest are?
A. Dorsal horn cells
B. Sympathetic ganglia
C. Cauda equina
D. Adrenal medulla
E. Adrenal cortex

Ans: B, D
Neural crest derivatives
1.spinal posterior nerve root ganglion
2.sympathetic ganglia
3.sensory ganglia of V, VII, VIII, IX, X cranial nerves.
4.dental papillae
5.chromaffin tissue
6.melanoblasts
7.pia and arachnoid mater

Q78. The blood supply of the stomach includes?
A. Splenic artery----- largest branch of celiac artery
B. Short gastric arteries------branch of splenic artery
C. Phrenic artery-----supplies diaphragm
D. Left gastric artery----smallest Br of celiac artery
E. Left gastroepiploic artery-----br of splenic artey

Ans: B, D, E
Q79. Superficial perineal muscles include?
A. Ischiocavernosus
B. Ileococcygeous
C. Pubococcygeous
D. Bulbospongiosus
E. Transversus perineii superficialis

Ans: A, D, E


Q80. Thenar muscles are supplied by?
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Anterior interosseous nerve
E. Posterior interosseous nerve

Ans: A, B

Q81. Left ureter is in close relation to?
A. Left renal artery
B. Gonadal vessels
C. Sigmoid mesocolon
D. Quadratus lumborum muscle
E. Iliac vessels
ANS:[b],[e]
Relation of left ureter
1.testicular artey
2.left colic artery
3.sigmoid colon

Posterior relation
1.internal iliac vessels

Anterior relations
1.ductus deferens
2.uterine artery

Q82. The true statement about stem cells include?
A. They divide to form different cell lines
B. They are used in gene therapy
C. They are terminally differentiated cells
D. The are present in peripheral circulation
E. They are incapable of division

Ans: A, B [A I P P G pgi answers]

Q83. The aortic opening transmits following structures?
A. Thoracic duct
B. Aorta
C. Sympathetic vein----passes behind medial arcuate ligament
D. Azygous vein
E. Hemiazygous vein

Ans: A, B,C, D,E
also left phrenic nerve,subcostal nerve.

Q84. Regarding Inguinal canal, true statements include?
A. It contains round ligament in females
B. The superficial ring is superomedial to pubic tubercle
C. The deep ring is an fascial condensation of fascia transversalis
D. It contains testicular artery and veins in males
E. It is intramuscular

Ans: A, B, C, and D

Q85. True statement is/are?
A. Frontal lobe is better developed in humans as compared to monkeys
B. The brain size is bigger in monkeys
C. Color vision is absent in monkeys
D. Brain body ratio is more in humans
E. There are more convolutions in brain of the monkeys

Q86. The technique (s) which differentiate between proteins on the base of their size (and not on charge) include?
A. Sedimentation
B. Electrolysis
C. Ion exchanage chromatography
D. Paper chromatography
E. SDS &#8211; PAGE

ans: [a] rest all depend on charge

Q87. True statement (s) about reverse transcriptase ?
A. Used in gene therapy
B. Involves formation of DNA from RNA
C. Involves formation of RNA from DNA
D. Requires NADPH
E. Useful in HIV infection
ans: [a],[b],[e]
Q88. Formation of hydrogen peroxide requires following enzymes?
A. Ligase
B. Dehydrogenase
C. Oxygenase
D. Oxidase
E. Peroxidase
ans:[e]

Q89. Repeat DNA segements are seen in?
A. Telomeres
B. DNA satellites
C. Cloned DNA
D. Histone DNA complex

Q90. DNA formed using reverse transcriptaseQ90. "Triple repeat sequence" diseases include?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C. Ataxia telangiectasia
D. Hungtinton's chorea
E. Spinocerebellar ataxia

Ans: D, E
Other examples r----
1.Spinocerebellar atrophy
2.Myotonica Dystrophic
3.Friedreich Ataxia
4.Fragile X syndrome
5.Kennedy disease
6.Huntington's disease


Q91. Introduction of gene into the cells, in gene therapy is done using?
A. electroporation
B. Intraporation
C. Intranuclear injection
D. Peroxisomal liposomes
E. All
Ans: [a], [c],[d]
All above methods r used 4 nontargeted delivery.
For targeted delivery
1. ligand DNA conjugates
2. Adenovirus ligand DNA conjugates
Q92. Among the follownig disease, the ones that have enzyme defects, include?
A. Ataxia telangiectasia
B. Achondroplasia
C. Phenylketonuria-----
D. von Willebrand's disease
E. Alkaptonuria----homogentesic oxidase
Ans: [c], [e]

Q93. True statements about iron absorption include?
A. It occurs in duodenum-----distal duodenum and jejunum
B. increased in decreased body iron stores
C. increased by increase in gastric acidity
D. absorption mainly occurs in ferrous state
E. decreased in inflammatory bowel disease
ans: [a], [b],[c],

Q94. Regulation of Phosphofructokinase I and II , and pyruvate kinase is seen in?
A. Brain
B. Muscle
C. Skin
D. Liver
E. RBCs


Q95. All of the following are treatments for hypercalcemia, except?
A. Levamisole
B. Plicamycin
C. Streptozocin
D. Saline diuresis and hydrocholorothiazide
E. Gallium nitrate

Ans: B, D, E
other drugs used
1.steroids---calciuric action
2.frusemide with forced diuresis
3.bisphosphonates
4.methramycin
5.calcitonin


Q96. Features of progressive systemic sclerosis are?
A. Aortic regurgitation
B. Antifibrillin antibodies
C. Calcinosis cutis
D. Raynaud's phenomenon
E. Sclerodactyly

Ans: B,C, D, E

Q97. Acute phase reactants include?
A. Albumin
B. Alpha 1 amyloid protein
C. Fibrinogen
D. Haptoglobulins
E. Globulins

Ans: B, C, D



Q98. Increased LAP scores are seen in ?
A. Chronic myeloid leukemia----dec LAP
B. Hodgkin's disease
C. Aplastic anaemia
D. Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria-----dec LAP
E. Polycythemia

Ans: [c], [e]


Q99. The true statement (s) about acanthosis nigricans include?
A. It is associated with obesity
B. It is associated with insulin resistance
C. There is hyperpigmentation
D. It occurs in axillary region
E. It is a marker for internal malignancies

Ans: A, B, C, D, E

Q100. Regarding bronchial asthma, the true statements is/are ?
A. Increased FVC--------normal or dec
B. Decreased PEF
C. Increased DLCO------dec
D. Increased FRC
E. Increased Tidal volume-----dec

Ans: B, D

Q101. Reduction of blood cholesterol levels is achieved by?
A. Regular exercise
B. Increased vegetable and fibre in diet
C. Increased saturated fatty acid in diet
D. Decreased total fat intake
E. Increased polyunsaturated fatty acid in diet

Ans: A, B, D, E


Q102. All of the following statements are true about a man suffering from low back pain with progressive stiffness of the back, except?
A. Association with HLA B 27
B. Association with Anterior uveitis
C. More commonly seen in females
D. Xrays of Sacroiliac joints may be helpful
E. Xrays of Abdomen is useful

Ans: [c], [e] all features of ankylosing spondylitis

Q103. Diseases caused by Prions include ?
A. Alzheimer's disease
B. Creutz feldt Jacob's disease
C. Familial fatal insomnia
D. Gerstmann Strausler Disease
E. Hungtington's disease

Ans: B, C, D

Prion diseases in humans are &#8211;
1. Creutz Feldt Jacob disease
2. Gerstmann Straussler Scheinker disease
3. Kuru
4. Familial fatal insomnia
5. Sporadic fatal insomnia

Q105. Palpable Purpura is seen in?
A. TTP
B. HUS
C. DIC
D. Scurvy
E. Henoch Schonlein Purpura

Ans: E
Palpable purpura
1,Acute meningococcemia
2.Disseminated gonococcal infection
3.Infective endocarditis
4.Polyarteritis nodosa

Q106. Peripheral neuropathy is seen in all of the following conditions, except?
A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. Polyarteritis Nodosa
C. SLE
D. Tuberculosis
E. Vitamin B 12 deficiency

Ans: D
go thru table no.337-3 on p-2501 in Harry 15th Ed
Q107. Among the following, the ones that predispose a patient to hepatic encephalopathy is/are ?
A. Bacterial peritonitis
B. Constipation
C. Dehydration
D. Haemorrhage
E. Hyperkalemia------hypokalemia, not hyper

Ans: A, B, C, D
also occurs in ---
1.azotemia
2.hypernatremia
3.hypoxia
4. Alkalosis
Q108. True statment(s) regarding alpha - 1 - antitrypsin deficiency include?
A. It is inherited as autosomal recessive--------autosomal dominant
B. It is associated with enzyme defect-------antiprotease deficiency
C. It has an association with emphysema-----causes panacinar type
D. There is presence of Orcein positive granules in the liver
E. There is presence of PAS positive diastase resistant granules in the liver------true

Ans: B, C, and E
Q109. Transient weakness is seen in?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Lambert Eaton syndrome
C. Guillain Barre syndrome
D. Myasthenia gravis
E. Multiple sclerosis

ans: [a], [b], [d], [e] ref to table 22-3 on page 122 in harry 15th Ed

Q110. The infusion of glucose in a suspected case of hypoglycemia coma is based upon?
A. Clincial assessment only
B. After blood glucose estimation
C. After urinary glucose determination
D. After excluding electrolyte imbalance
E. After endocrinologist consultation
Ans: A

Q111. Extrahepatic biliary obstruction is associated with?
A. Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
B. Ascites
C. Malabsorption
D. serum alkaline phosphatase
E. Pale stools

Ans: A, C, D, E

Q112. Secretory diarrhoea is caused by?
A. Carcinoid tumor
B. Gastrinoma
C. Lactase deficiency----- osmotic d&#8217;hea
D. Mastocytosis
E. Short bowel syndrome---- osmotic d&#8217;hea

Ans: A, B, D

Q113. Herpes Zoster infection in a patient suggests that he is suffering from?
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. HIV
C. Leukemia
D. Lymphoma
E. Diabetes mellitus
ans: [b], [c], [d]

Q114. Sestamibi is used in diagnosis of?--------REF TO TECHNETIUM SCAN
A. Adrenal tumors
B. Goitres
C. Ectopic parathyroid tissue
D. Parathyroid adenomas
E. Parathyroid hyperplasia
ANS: [C], [D], [E],


Q115. Features of Schizophrenia include?
A. Avolition
B. Flight of ideas
C. Made effect
D. Thought broadcasting
E. Though insertion

Ans: C, D, E, AIPPG

Q116. Flight of ideas is seen in?
A. Mania
B. Schizophrenia----thought block, mutism
C. Depression-----dec speech
D. Obsessive disorders
E. Hysteria
Ans: [a]

Q117. True statement regarding the tonsils include?
A. Lies on superior constrictor muscle
B. Vertical axis is directed anteromedially
C. Most common cause of tonsillitis is Streptococci
D. Infection spreads to jugulodigastric nodes
E. Pain of tonsillitis is referred to ears

Ans: A, C, D, E


Q118. Functional endoscopic sinus surgery is indicated in ?
A. Allergic polyps
B. Frontoethmoidal mucocele
C. Inverted papilloma
D. Maxillary polyp
E. Mucoromycosis

Ans:[b],[d].[a]
Especially used 4 ethmoidal polp


Q119. True statement about supraglottic carcinoma is/are ?
A. It is more common in females
B. Cigarette smoking is most important predisposing factor
C.hot potato voice seen
D. Rarely presents with neck nodes----------MC mode of presentation
E. Treated by surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy

Ans: B, D


Q120. True about otosclerosis is/are ?
A. More common in females
B. Causes sensorineural deafness------ noninfective conductive deafness
C. Aggravated in pregnancy
D. Autosomal dominant inheritance in > 50%
E. Treated with sodium fluoride

Ans: A, C, D, E
Q121. CSF - Rhinorrhoea is associated with fractures of ?
A. Nasal bone
B. Zygomatic bone
C. Mandibular bone
D. Frontoethmodial fracture
E. Lefort-I
ans: [d]
Q122. All of the following sinus drain into middle meatus except?
A. Anterior ethmoidal sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Maxillary sinus
D. Sphenoidal sinus
E. Posterior ethmoidal sinus

Ans: A, B, C


Q123. The age at which an infant can follow horizontally for 180 degress and has almost full head control but cannot sit without support is?
A. 2 months
B. 3 months
C. 6 months
D. 9 months
E. 10 months
Ans: 6 mths
Q124. rue statement about nephrotic sydrome in a patient suffering from minimal change disease is?
A. Minimal change disease is the commonest cause of nephrotic syndrome in children
B. Hematuria is a prominent presenting feature--------seen in acute glomerulonephritis
C. Treatment is initiated only after biopsy
D. Steroids are used in the treatment
E. Cyclophosphamide and levamisole are used in the management-------------------- 2nd line if steroids fail

Ans: A, D, E



Q125. Features of childhood rickets include all of the following except?
A. Decreased calcium
B. Weight gain
C. Increased alkaline phosphatase
D. Large anterior fontanelle
E. Excessive sweating
Ans: [a], [c],[d]


Q126. A 2 yrs old child is suffering from leukemia. The changes that may be present in the bones include?
A. Lytic lesions
B. Osteosclerotic lesions
C. Osteoporotic lesions
D. Periosteal new bone formation
E. Metaphyseal band
Ans: [a]


Q127. Physiological jaundice?
A. Appears within 24 hours-------after 24 hrs
B. Occurs due to increased RBC destruction
C. Occurs due to biliary obstruction
D. Lasts upto 3 weeks----------not more than 2 wks
E. Is an indication to stop breast feeding
ans: [b],

Q128. True statement(s) above apoptosis includes?
A. Intranuclear chromosomal clumping
B. Caspases are activated
C. Macrophages engulf remnants of apoptotic material
D. Lymphocytes and neutrophil migrate to apoptotic site
E. Vacuoles in lysosomes is characterstic feature

Ans: A, B, C

Q129. In Acute inflammation, the mediator for migration and attachment of neutrophils to the endothelium is?
A. Adhesins
B. Integrins
C. Perforins
D. Opsonins
E. Selectins

Ans: Integrins


Q130. Among the following, the ones that are premalignant are?
A. Bronchiectasis
B. Hyperplastic polyp
C. Menetrier's disease
D. Peutz Jegher's sydrome
E. Ulcerative colitis

Ans: A, E



Q131. Among the following, all are premalignant, except?
A. Familial adenomatosis polyposis
B. Hyperplastic polyp
C. Menetrier's disease
D. Peutz Jegher's syndrome
E. Villous adenoma

Ans: D

Q132. Factors predisposing colonic cancer include?
A. Ulcerative colitis
B. Crohn's disease
C. Tuberculosis
D. Familial adenomatous polyposis
E. Animal fat consumption
Ans: [a], [b], [d], [e]

Q133. The cells seen in Hodgkin's disease are all of the following, except?
A. Langerhans cells
B. Lacunar cells
C. Reed sternberg cells
D. Hodgkin's cells
E. L & H cells

Ans: B, C
Q134. Factors promoting tumor growth include?
A. &#8595; p53
B. &#8593; bcl-2
C. &#8593; bcl-2: bax ratio
D. &#8595; bcl-2: bax ratio
E. &#8595; bcl-2

Q135. Platelet dysfunction is seen in?
A. Bernard Soulier disease
B. Glanzmann's disease
C. HUS
D. Polycythemia
E. Von willebrandt's disease

ans: [a], [b], [e]
Q136. Increased thrombosis of arteries is seen in ?
A. Protein C deficiency
B. Protein S deficiency
C. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
D. Decreased Antithrombin III
E. Increased Fibrinogen

Ans: A, B, D,


Q137. Call Exner bodies are seen in?
A. Brenner's tumor
B. Endodermal sinus tumor
C. Embryonal cell carcinoma
D. Leydig cell tumor
E. Granulosa cell tumor

Ans: E

Q138. Splenic dysfuntion is seen in?
A. SLE
B. Tropical splenomegaly
C. Coeliac sprue
D. Polycythemia
E. Weber Christian disease
Ans: [a], [b], [d]
Q139. The etiologic agents impicated in the pathogenesis of coronary artery disease include?
A. CMV
B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
C. Herpes virus
D. Hemophilus influenzae
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae
ans: [e]
Q140. Inheritance of mitochondrial DNA is ?
A. Paternal
B. Horizontal
C. X linked
D. maternal
e.Vertical

ans: [d]
Q141. All of the following are autosomal recessive, except?
A. Alpha 1 antitrypsin deficiency
B. Gaucher's disease
C. Hereditary hemochromatosis
D. Hereditary spherocytosis
E. Phenylketonuria
Ans: [a], [b], [c],[e]

Q142. Regarding the site of lesion in amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, true statement (s) include?
A. Anterior horn cells
B. Posterior horn cells
C. Pyramidal tracts
D. Neuromuscular junction
E. Extrapyramidal tracts
Ans: [a] both UMN and LMN r involved

Q143. Anti-parkinsonian drugs include?
A. Amatadine
B. Mazindol
C. Levodopa
D. Metronidazole
E. Methyl phenidate

Ans: A, C

Q144. Complications associated with the use of Dapsone therapy include?
A. Jaundice
B. Rashes
C. Bone marrow suppression
D. Hemolysis in G6PD deficient patients
E. Exacerbation of leprosy

Ans: A, B, D, E


Q145. Antibiotics which are used as anticancer drugs include?
A. Actinomycin D
B. Bleomycin
C. Cyclophosphamide
D. Methotrexate
E. Plicamycin

Ans: A, B, E

Q146. True statement (s) regarding Esmolol include?
A. Can be used in asthma--- it is selective &#946;1 blocker
B. Can be used in renal disease
C. Is given as continuous i.v. infusion
D. Is non-selective beta blocker
E. Actions last more than 6 hrs------ultra short acting
Ans: A, B, C



Q147. Among the following, the ones that are selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors are?
A. Fluoxetine
B. Paroxetine
C. Fluvoxamine
D. Mirtazapine--------- Enhances release of both Noradrenaline & Serotonin by blocking alpha2 receptors.
E. Venlafaxine ---------Serotonin & Noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor.

Ans: A, B, C

Q148. Prostaglandins with vasodilator properties include?
A. Leukotriene D4
B. PGE2
C. PGF2&#945;
D. TXA2
E. Prostacyclin

Ans: B, C, E


Q149. Warfarin induced Skin necrosis occurs due to?
A. Antithrombin III deficiency
B. Protein C deficiency
C. Protein S deficiency
D. Increased Factor VII levels
E. Increased Platelet counts
Ans: [b]
Occurs on 3rd &#8211; 10th day of therapy
Unrelated to dose or underlying d/s
MC site &#8211; breast , thigh, buttocks
Treatment: vit k and heparin

Q150. True statement(s) regarding propranolol include?
A. It is a non selective beta blocker
B. It does not have intrinsic sympathomimetic activity
C. It has a short half life
D. It increases the airway resistance
E. It can be given to reduce anxiety
Ans: [a], [b]


Q151. Drugs causing Torsades de pointes include?
A. Digoxin
B. Disopyramide
C. Lignocaine
D. Procainamide
E. Quinidine

ans:[ B], [d], [e].
other drugs---------
1. amiodarone
2. astemazole
3. cisapride
4. clomipramine
5. desipramine
6. erythromycin
Q152. Drugs causing bone marrow suppression in a patient suffering from HIV infection are?
A. Nelfinavir
B. Didanosine
C. Indinavir
D. Steroids
E. Zalcitabine

Q153. Drugs that are effective against anaerobes include?
A. Amikacin
B. Aztreonam
C. Imipenems
D. Metronidazole
E. Vancomycin
ans:[c], [d]

Q154. Newer anti-histamines are?
A. Azelastine
B. Chlorpheniramine
C. Desloratadine
D. Fexofenadine
E. Levalorphenol
Ans [c], [d] other egs----
6. terfenadine
7. astemazole
8. loratidine
9. cetrizine
Q155. The true statement about Vancomycin is/are ?
A. It acts on cell wall
B. Useful against gram negative organisms------g+ve bacteria
C. Can also be used for anaerobic organisms----no
D. Rash is one of the side effects-----skin allergy occurs
E. Useful in MRSA

Ans: A, E

Q156. The drugs that are preferred in a patient who develops cyclosporine induced hypertension are?
A. Beta blockers
B. Calcium channel blockers
C. Clonidine
D. Enalapril
E. Frusemide
Ans: [b] ref: cmdt

Q157. A 24 yr old patient was brought to emergency department with a history of trauma, blood pressure 100/60 mm of Hg and tachycardia. Bedside USG revealed splenic laceration. I.V. Fluids were administered and his blood pressure stabilized at 120/70mm of Hg. Further management includes?
A. Monitoring and surgery only if patient deteriorates
B. Immediate laparotomy and splenic repair
C. Immediate laparotomy and splenectomy
D. Laparoscopic splenic repair

Ans: A, D

Q158. Tracheostomy may be required in ?
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Flail chest injury
C. Fracture of pelvis
D. Fracture of femur
E. Tetanus
Ans: [e]

Q159. Swan Ganz Catheter is used to know?
A. Pulmonary artery pressure
B. Capillary wedge pressure
C. Collapsing pressure of pulmonary vessels
D. Oxygen saturation in pulmonary vessels
E. Oxygen saturation in capillaries

Ans: A, B
Swan ganz catheter
The pressure in the left atrium of the heart may be estimated by measuring the pulmonary wedge pressure. This technique uses an inflated balloon-tipped catheter, which is passed through the chambers of the heart from an incision in a peripheral artery. The catheter is directed by the force of the blood flow on the balloon. It is eventually positioned so that the tip of the catheter is wedged into one of the small vessels leading to the lungs. Since this blocks the local flow, the pressure in the capillary bed of the lungs can be measured. The pressure across the capillary bed of the lungs is small and so this approximates to the left atrial pressure.
Such catheters can be positioned without fluoroscopic (X- ray) assistance and can be used for medium-term monitoring in the intensive care unit as well as in the cardiac catheter laboratory.
The left atrial pressure is a useful index of cardiac performance

Q160. A 70 yr old patient presenting with abdominal pain, in a state of shock, was found to have abdominal aneurysm. The management includes all of the following, except?
A. Correction of shock with fluids and crystalloids
B. Arranging for 6 units of blood
C. USG
D. CT Scan
E. Immediate laparotomy with repair

Ans: A, B, D, E

Q161. Following an RTA, a patients was brought with a pulsatile swelling in the groin with palpable distal pulses, Doppler showed injuires to femoral vessels. Further management includes?
A. Repair of femoral vessels
B. Ligation of artery and repair of vein
C. Ligation of vein and repair of artery
D. Ligation of both the vessels
E. Wait and watch

Q162. True statement (s) about mesenteric artery thrombosis include?
A. Melena is a rare feature-----common feature
B. Presents as chronic abdominal pain----sudden onset of abdominal pain
C. Presentation is with distension of abdomen and simulates intestinal obstruction
D. Heparin is used in its treatment
E. Short bowel syndrome is a problem if intestinal resection is undertaken
ans [c], [e]

Q163. The tone of LES (Lower esophageal sphincter) is reduced by?
A. Antacids
B. Alcohol
C. Coffee/ Tea
D. Diazepam
E. Fat intake
ans; [b], [c] ,[e]

Q164. True about Barret's oesophagus is/are ?
A. Causative agent is Herpes virus
B. Occurs due to chronic reflux oesophagitis
C. Is associated with oesophageal varices
D. Here squamous epithelium is replaced with intestinal type
E. Is a premalignant condition

Ans: B, D, E

Q165. A patient with gastric outlet obstruction has presented with recurrent episodes of vomiting. Fluid deficit is to be corrected prior to surgery, with?
A. Ringer's lactate
B. Dextrose 5%
C. Normal saline with potassium supplementation
D. Hypertonic saline with potassium supplementation
E. Normal saline only

Ans: A

Q166. True statements about inflammatory bowel disease are all of the following, except?
A. It is associated with melena-------severe heamorrhage can occur
B. Surgery is useful in intractable ulcerative colitis
C. Proctocolectomy with ileoanal anastomosis is useful in Crohn's disease-------for ulcerative colitis
D. Steroids have no role in management
E. Chronic ulcerative colitis may become malignant-----only 3.5%cases after 20 yrs

Ans: [c], [d]
Q167. The investigation advised in a patient with intestinal obstruction is/are ?
A. Xray abdomen
B. Upper GI Endoscopy
C. Barium meal follow through
D. USG
E. CT Scan

Ans: A, D, E
Q168. True statement (s) about Peutz jeghers syndrome include?
A. About 50% cases are inherited as autosomal dominant
B. It is a premalignant condition
C. It is associated with hyperkalemia
D. It is associated with hypokalemia
E. It is associated with peri-oral pigmentation
ans;[e]

Q169. True statement(s) about intestinal neoplasia is/are?
A. Peutz Jegher's syndrome is a premalignant condition----benign condition
B. Villous adenoma is not premalignant-----is premalignant
C. Sessile polyps have a greater malignant potential
D. Familial adenomatosis polyposis is associated with a high incidence of malignancy
E. Lymphoma is the most common intestinal tumor-----adenocarcinoma is MC

Ans: C, D
Q170. True about the measures that can be helpful in the prevention of colonic carcinoma is/are?
A. Increased fat intake
B. Increased fibre diet
C. Increased fibre in diet with decreased fat intake
D. Smoked fish intake------causes gastric carcinoma
Ans:, [B],[C]

Q171. A 60 yr old male with left sided carcinoma of colon is brought features of intestinal obstruction. Management includes?
A. Decompression
B. Left hemicolectomy
C. Hartmann's operation
D. Proctocolectomy with ileoanal anastomosis
E. Radiotherapy

Ans: A, B, C,

Q172. A patient who underwent laparoscopic cholecystectomy, developed fever on 3rd post operative day and his USG revealed subhepatic fluid collection measuring 12cms. Further management includes?
A. Cystic duct ligation
B. Hepatojejunostomy
C. Laparascopic clipping of cystic duct with drain placement
D. Laparotomy with Roux en Y loop formation
E. Laparotomy with repair and T-tube placement


Q173. Catheter insertion per urethra, is done in all of the following conditions, except?
A. BPH
B. Urethral trauma
C. Prostatic cancer
D. Postoperative retention of urine
E. Urethral stricture

Ans: B

Q174. A patient with strangulated inguinal hernia may be investigated by all of the following, except?
A. Aspiration of fluid
B. Xray abdomen
C. USG
D. CT Scan
E. Laparotomy


Q175. The true statement (s) about hernia is/are?
A. Inguinal Hernias are more common on the right side
B. Femoral hernia is the commonest type in females
C. Femoral hernia is more common in females
D. Strangulated hernia may be asymptomatic
E. Strangulation is more common in a direct inguinal hernia

Ans: A, C, E

Q176. Regarding hypospadias, true statements include?
A. Urethral stricture may be present
B. Meatal stenosis may be present
C. Ventral meatal opening is the commonest
D. Dorsal hooding of prepuce
E. Lateral bending of penis

Ans:[b], [c] ,[d], [a] ------not sure

Q177. For diagnosis in a patient presenting with a breast lump, the best investigation is?
A. FNAC
B. Bidirectional mammorgraphy
C. CT Scan
D. MRI
E. Angiography
ans: [a]

Q178. True statements about lymphangioma include all except?
A. congenital origin
B. infection is the commonest cause
C. cystic hygroma is one of the types
D. sclerotherapy is the treatment modality of choice
E. surgical excision is the treatment modality of choice
ans:[b]
It is sequestration of a portion of jugular lymph sac from the lymphatic system for the appearance of these swelling.
Q179. True statement(s) about ludwig's angina, include?
A. Caused by H. influenzae
B. caused by anaerobes
C. is an infection of the floor of the mouth
D. may involve submandibular and sublingual spaces
E. treatment is with antibiotics only

Ans: A, C, D

Q180. True about Revised Natural Tuberculosis Control Programme (RNTCP) ?
A. Active case finding is done--------patients come seeking treatment
B. Active surveillance is done
C. It has been implicated all over India replacing the earlier NTCP
D. Drugs are dispensed in multiblister packs
E. DOTS is an essential mode of treatment

Ans: C, D, E



Q181. About tuberculosis, true statements include?
A. Prevalence of infection is 30%
B. Prevalence of disease is 4/1000
C. Incidence of infection is 20% ----------1-2%
D. Incidence of disease is 3/1000---------1.5/1000( excluding <5 yr old)
E. Incidence of disease is calculated by Tuberculin conversion index-----TCI tells about incidence of infection

Ans: A, B



Q182. Steps that can help in primary prevention of dental caries include?
A. Calcium supplementation
B. Cleaning of teeth and dental filling
C. Fluoridation of water
D. Health education
E. Screening-----------SECONDARY PREVENTION

Ans: [B], [C], [D]

Q183. Diseases that have been eradicated worldwide are?
A. Chicken pox
B. Guinea worm
C. Measles
D. Polio
E. Small pox

Ans:[B], [E]

Q184. Complications associated with the use of Oral polio vaccine include?
A. Vaccine induced Poliomyelitis
B. Fall in immunity
C. Myopathy
D. Polio in contacts of vaccine recipients-------esp by type3
E. Guillain Barre syndrome

Ans: A, D

Q185. The major criteria four HIV include?
A. Cough > 1 months-------minor criteria
B. Diarrhoea > 1 months
C. Weight loss > 10%
D. Fever > 1 months
E. Oropharyngeal candidiasis--------minor criteria

Ans: [B], [C], [D]


Q186. About PHC referral services, the true statement is/are?
A. Health education
B. Registration of births and deaths
C. Maternal and child health
D. Basic laboratory investigations
E. Speciality services------at community health centre

Ans: [A],[B], [C], [D]

Q187. The enzyme which is a marker for Golgi apparatus is?
A. Acid phosphatase-------------- lysosome
B. Glutamate dehydrogenase------------mitochondria
C. Glucose 6 phosphatase--------------ER
D. Galactosyl transferase
E. N-acetyl galactosamine
Ans: [d]


Q188. The resting membrane potential is dependent upon?
A. Calcium
B. Chloride
C. Magnesium
D. Potassium
E. Sodium

Ans: Potassium[d]

As the membrane is impermeable to most anions in cell, potassium efflux is not accompanied by equal movement of anions, and the membrane is maintained in a polarized state, with outside positive relative to the inside.]

Q189. The following induce weakness in the contraction of the heart?
A. Hypocalcemia
B. Hyopphosphatemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Metabolic acidosis
E. Respiratory alkalosis


Q190. Features of spinal shock include?
A. Areflexia
B. Deep tendon reflexes increased
C. Spasticity
D. Sensory level
E. Urinary retention


Q191. Production of aldosterone is stimulated by?
A. Atrial natriuretic peptide-----inhibits
B. Adrenaline
C. Renin
D. Dopamine---------------------inhibits
E. Endorphin
Ans: [c], [e] check out table 33-1 on page no. 2089 in Harrison

Q192. In carbonmonoxide toxicity, true is/are?
A. Oxygen content of the arterial blood is decreased---------remains normal
B. Left shift of oxygen dissociated curve is noted-----------inhibits release of oxygen
C. Oxygen saturation at 50% PaO2 is decreased
D. There is metabolic acidosis
E. Oxygen is used in its treatment---------100% oxygen
Ans;[b], [c], [d], [e]

Q193. DNA Polymerase has which of the following actions:
a. 3-5 exonuclease---------proof reading activity
b. 3-5 polymerase
c. 5-3 polymerase----------esp by type III
d. hn RNA lyase
e. Ligase
Ans: [a],[c]


Q194. To Differentiate between mitochondrial and peroximsomal enzyme activity, it would be found that in peroxizomes
a. there is higher enzymatic activity
b. Higher number of cascades
c. Hydrogen peroxide forming enzymes are present
d. NADPH is required
Ans: [c]

Q195. Electron microscopy is useful in which of the following diseases
a. Prion disease
b. Rota virus
c. CMV
d. HSV
e. Calci virus

Q196. CMV retinitis is treated with
a. Ribavirin
b. Gancyclovir
c. Valacyclovir
d. Acyclovir
e. Amantadine
Ans: [b] also foscarnet can be used.


Q197. True about Vitamin K treatment include
a. Increases formation of II, VII, IX, X factors
b. Does not cause hemolysis--------can cause hemolysis in dose dependent manner
c. Causes formation of I, II, X, XII, XIII factors
d. Can be used in liver disease
Ans: [a]


Q198. A young boy presented with fever , sinusitis , multiple cranial nerve palsies and proptosis. The diagnosis is/are
a. Temporal lobe abscess
b. Cavernous sinus thrombosis
c. Meningitis
d. Petrositis
e. Zygomatic abscess
Ans: [d]

Q199. Features of Meniers disease include
a. Vertigo
b. Nystagmus
c. Deafness------- sensorineural type
d. Diplopia
e. tinnitus
Ans: [a], [c], [e]


Q200. True about etiopathogenesis of Alzhiemers disease include
a. APP gene defect----------point mutation
b. Prion disease
c. Autoantibody formation
d. Herpes infection


Ans; [a] also seen--- 1. neurofibrillary tangles
2. senile plaques
3. amyloid angiopathy
4. hirano bodies


Q201. True about Rabies includes:
a. Encephalitis is a feature-----------peripheral nerve involvement
b. Low mortality rate-----------------high
c. Negribodies are seen in thalamus and pituitary gland----------hippocampus
d. Can be prevented by post exposure prophylaxis-------------preexposure prophylaxis
e. Caused by DNA virus-------------RNA

Ans: none

Q201. Complications in the use of thiopentone sodium include
a. Arterial spasm----------- if given intra arterial
b. Hypotension
c. Urticarial rash
d. Increased airway resistance
e. Cholinergic symptoms

Ans; [a] ,[b],,,,,,, anaphylaxis and tachyphylaxis can occur

Q202. True about Dezocin as compared to morphin include
a. Lesser histamine release
b. Lesser potency than morphine-----------similar potency
c. Greater potency than morphine
d. Lesser dependency

Ans: [d]
1. onset and duration similar to morphine
2. less risk of abuse

Q203. Which of the following are associated with ion channel receptors
a. N-M junction
b. GABA-A
c. GABA-B
d. Opiod alkaloids


Ans: [b] also ----1. nicotinic cholinergic
2. glycine
3.excitatory AA


Q204. True about calciums is/are
a. Entry is regulated by calmodulin uptake
b. Extracellular concentration of calcium is 10,000 times more than intracellular
c. Symport uptake
d. Entry into cell is passive
e. Released by sarcoplasmic reticulam

Q205. Folic acid prophylaxis is useful in preventing
a. IUGR
b. Neural tube defects
c. Preeclammpsia
d. Anaemia
e. Cong heart d/s

Ans: [b]

Q206. Trophoblast derivatives include
a. Amnion
b. Placenta
c. Chorion
d. Innner cell mass-----------blastocyst
e. Cytotraphoblast

Ans: a, b, c, e.

Q207. Tumor markers of hepatocellular carcinoma include
a. CEA
b. Des gamma carboxyprothrombin
c. CA 19-9
d. Fucosilated alpha protein
e. Alpha fetoprotein elevated in greater than 70% pts

Ans: [b] [e]

Q208. Absolute lymphocytosis is seen in which of the following
a. Tuborculosis
b. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
c. HIV
d. Giardiasis
e. H. Influenza infection

Q209. Tumor markers of testicular include
a. CA 15-3--------Ca breast
b. LDH------------dysgerminoma
c. HCG-----------gonadal germ cell
d. Alpha fetoprotein-----gonadal germ cell
e. Alpha 1 antitrypsin

Ans:[b], [c[], [d]

Q210. True about pulmonary hypertension include
a. Primary is more common in men
b. Occurs in left ventricular dysfunction
c. Interstitial lung fibrosis is a cause
d. Multiple emboli can cause


Q211. Tumors sensitive to radiotherapy include
a. leukemia
b. Lymphoma
c. Sarcoma
d. Gastric adenocarcinoma
e. Seminoma

Ans : [b], [e]

Q212. Which of the following are causes of posterior mediastinal mass
a. Neuroenteric cyst
b. Neurogenic cyst
c. Anterior thoraxic meningocele
d. Lymphoma
e. Bronchogenic cyst


Ans[a], [b]

Q213. True about small intestinal tumors include
a. Most common small intestinal tumor is lymphoma----------adenocarcinoma
b. Most common site is duodenum----------ileum
c. Adenocarcinoma occurs more commonly in ileum-----------distal duodenum and proximal jejunum
d. Presents usually with intestinal obstruction----------malabsorption

Ans; none

Q214. Thickened muscosal walls in the stomach occur due to
a. Lymphoma
b. Giardiasis
c. Varicosis
d. Herpes infection
e. Astrophic gastritis

Ans: [a] also in meneteirs disease


Q215. All of the following cells are seen in hodgkins except
a. Hodgkin cells
b. L & H cells
c. Langerhan cells
d. Reed sternberg cells
e. Lacunar cell
Ans: [a], [b]


Q216. Nasal foreign body in children in associated with
a. Inanimate objects more common
b. Presents with unilateral foul smelling discharge
c. Serous discharge bilaterally is a common presentation
d. Sometimes associated bilaterally with unilateral bloody discharge
e. Most common cause of epistaxis

Ans; [a], [b], [d]

Q217. True about diarrhea due to vibrio cholera
a. Vaccine is very effective
b. Subclinical cases are rare
c. Infection is spread by water
d. Antibiotics can be used as prophylaxis------------- but not for mass prophylaxis
e. Chronic carrier state is used is persistent

Ans: [c] [d]

Q218. True about extradrenal pheochromocytoma include
a. Nor epinephrine is the predominant harmone secreted
b. Epinephrine is the predominant harmone excreted------- in intra adrenal tumor
c. Most common site is retroperitineal region------------bifurcation of aorta
d. Headache is a feature


Ans; [a], [d]


Q219. True about malaria include
a. P. Vivax is most common form of cerebral malaria------P.falciparum
b. Hyperglyceamia is a feature-------------------------hypoglycemia
c. Sporozoites are the infective form
d. Hyperviscosity is a feature-----------------------anaemia occurs so , viscosity dec
e. Man is definitive host-----------------------------------mosquito

Ans; [c],

Q220. Which of the following normal changes in pregnancy
a. Increased Tidal volume
b. Increased respiratory rate ---------unaffected
c. Increased FVC -----------------------dec
d. Increased total lung capacity-------dec
e. Increased residual volume---------dec by 20%

Ans: [a]

Q221. Features of Meniers disease include
a. Nystagmus
b. Deafness
c. Tinnitus
d. Diplopia
e. Vertigo

Ans; [b], [c], [e]


Q222. Which of the following are seen in apoptosis
a. Membrane blebs
b. Macrophages engulf the disintegrated remaining cell
c. Nuclear fragmentation occurs
d. Caspases are activated
e. Cell swelling occurs

Ans: [d] [c]


Q223. Two most common symptoms of biliary cirrhosis are
a. Fatigue
b. Jaundice
c. Pruritis
d. Pain abdomen
e. Vomiting

Ans: [b], [c]


Q224. Which of the following causes recurrent abortion ?
a. Rubella
b. Toxoplasma
c. CMV
d. Antiphopholipid Antibody syndrome

Ans: all&#8230; remember TORCH infection


Q225. Following crush injury muscle vitality can be considered using which of the following indiactors
a. Colour
b. Function of muscle
c. Contractility of muscle
d. Oozing of blood at cut ends
e. Presence of pain

Ans: [d]


Q226. Which of the following predispose a patient to prehepatic encepalopathy
a. Constipation
b. Bacterial peritonitis
c. Heamorrage
d. Hyperkalemia------- HYPOKALEMIA
e. Dyhydration

Ans:A, B, C.
Also PPT by
1. azotemia
2. alkalosis
3. hypoia
4. hypernatremia


Q227. Basal ganglia calcification is seen in which of the following
a. hypothyroidism
b. hyperthyroidism
c. hypoparathyroidism
d. hyperparathyroidism
e. cushings disease

ans: [c]

Q228. Treatment of amblyopia includes
a. orthoptics
b. surgery--------Eg correction of cataract
c. occlusion
d. Penalization------- adm of atropine to blur the sound eye
e. Pleoptics------- to reestablish foveal fixation

Ans; B, C, D, E.

 


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