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Last Updated 4 JAN 2002
1. Young patient developed painless
sudden loss if vision which spontaneously improved over a period of 3 months
.what is the most probable diagnosis ?
• MACULAR HOLE
• CENTRAL SEROUS RETINOPATHY
• ANGLE GLAUCOMA
• RETINAL DETACHMENT
ANS B
ref: page 194 rao opthalmology selflimiting and recurrent cause allergic, stress and vasomotorinstability. [saurabh gupta]
2. Leucoria seen in all EXCEPT
• RETINOBLASTOMA
• CONGENITAL GLAUCOMA
• PERSISTANT HYPERPLASTIC VITREOUS
• FUNGAL ENDOPHTHALMITIS
ANS (B)
3. Female patient complains of blurring
of vision, was prscribed -0.5D spherical lenses, retinoscopy done at 1m with
a plane mirror will cause the image to move in which manner?
• IMAGE MOVES IN DIRECTION OF MIRROR
• IMAGE MOVES IN THE OPPOSITE DIRECTION
• NO MOVEMENT OF THE IMAGE
• SCISSORS REFLEX IS SEEN
ANS- (A)
4. What is the most common eye manifestation
of allergy to tubercular bacilli?
• KOEPPES NODULES
• POSTERIOR SCLERITIS
• PHLYCTENULAR CONJUNCTIVITIS
• OPTIC NEURITIS
ANS - (C) [param,indore]
Harrison------"Tuberculosis may cause chorioretinitis, uveitis, panophthalmitis, and painful hypersensitivity-related PHLYCTENULAR CONJUNCTIVITIS [aman jindal]
5. What is the diagnosis for ropy
discharge from the eyes, along with itching, which occurs every summer?
• VERNAL CATARRH
• BACTERIAL CONJUNCTIVITIS
• TRACHOMA
• PHLYCTENULAR CONJUNCTIVITIS
ANS (A)
6. Which wall is most often fractured
in a blow out fracture of the orbit due to fisticuff injury?
• SUPERIOR
• INFERIOR
• MEDIAL
• LATERAL
ANS (B)
7. Which of these is NOT useful in
arriving at a diagnosis of moderate papilledema in a patient of head injury?
• IMPAIRED PUPILLARY REFLEX
• HYPEREMIA
• FILLING OF THE PHYSIOLOGICAL CUP
• BLURRING OF THE MARGINS
ANS (A)
8. What is represented by ETDRS in
a diabetic vision chart?
• ELECTIVE TREATMENT FOR DIABETIC RETINOPATHY SCALES
• EXTENDED RX FOR DIABETES REVIEW STUDY
• EARLY TREATMENT DIABETIC RETINOPATHY STUDY
• EYE TEST DRUM REVIEW STUDY
ANS (C) [kunnal batra,jhansi ; Pinaki sensarma,kolkata , Jinesh Thomas,Ernakulam, Saurabh gupta, Dr. Vaibhav Jain,Raipur and others]
The Early Treatment Diabetic Retinopathy Study (ETDRS) evaluated the effectiveness of laser treatment for the leaking phase of diabetic retinopathy. Patients with macular edema (leaking near or within the center part of the retina, that part which is used for reading, driving etc, see photo), were randomly assigned to receive either laser treatment to the leaking microaneurysms or were simply observed without treatment. The results showed that timely laser treatment reduced the risk of moderately severe visual loss by about three-fold at three years after treatment and significantly increased the likelihood of moderate visual gain. More importantly, this study provides the treating retinal specialist with a detailed guide as to when laser therapy is necessary based upon the location of leaking areas. With this knowledge, we can treat patients at the appropriate time so as to prevent vision loss and conversely, avoid unnecessary treatment for those for whom it is not beneficial. [bhavna, jaipur]
9. What drug can be used that will
provide only mydriasis and no cycloplegia, for a fundus examination in a young
adult patient?
• ATROPINE OINTMENT
• PHENYLEPRINE
• HOMATROPINE
• TROPICAMIDE
ANS (B)
10.Which of these is NOT caused by
amphotericin B?
•AZOTEMIA
•GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
•HYPOKALEMIA
•RENAL TUBULAR ACIDOSIS
ANS (B)
11. Ingestion of what product by
the mother may cause the infant to have cleft palate, spina bifida and an (ASD
doubtful)?
•ISOTRETINOIN
•VALPROATE
•PHENYTOIN
•CARBAMAZEPINE
ANS (B)
12. What is the most common cardiac
defect caused due to lithium?
•EBSTEINS ANOMALY
•HOCM
•AORTIC ANEURYSM
•EISENMENGER SYNDROME
ANS (A)
13. A man is arrested for possession
of narcotics, the culprit is found to have black tongue. What is likely to have
been the substance of abuse?
•HEROIN
•COCAINE
•CANNABIS
•ARSENIC
ANS (B)
14. A 25 yr old male experienced
severe flushing, fall in blood pressure after intake of alcohol .The above described
attack can be precipitated by the simultaneous intake of all the following drugs
along with alcohol EXCEPT which?
•CEFAMANDOLE
•METRONIDAZOLE
•DEXAMETHASONE
•CHLORPROPAMIDE
ANS (C)
15. A patient with H/O asthma develops
respiratory tract infection .He is on theophylline, which of the following antibiotics
may precipitate theophylline toxicity?
•ERYTHROMYCIN
•SPARFLOXACIN
•AMPICILLIN
•COTRIMOXAZOLE
ANS (A)
16. In which condition is granulomatous
vasculitis NOT seen?
•MICROSCOPIC POLYANGIITIS
•WEGENERS GRANULOMATOSIS
•GIANT CELL ARTERITIS
•CHURG STRAUSS SYNDROME
ANS (A)
17. A 30 year old suffers from nephrotic
syndrome, has been on steroids for 14 years. Has bilateral difficulty in abduction
and internal rotation of the hip. Attempt to flex results in abduction. What
is the cause?
•AVASCULAR NECROSIS OF FEMUR HEAD
•SEPTIC ARTHRITIS
•RENAL OSTEODYSTROPHY
•HETEROTOPIC CALCIFICATION
ANS (A)
18. In which of these conditions
in elevated HCG level NOT seen?
•CHORIOCARCINOMA
•POLYEMBRYOMA
•ENDODERMAL SINUS TUMOR
•EMBRYONAL CARCINOMA
ANS (C)
Harrison-- Endodermal sinus tumor is the malignant counterpart of the fetal yolk sac and is associated with secretion of AFP. Pure embryonal carcinoma may secrete AFP, or hCG, or both; this pattern is biochemical evidence of differentiation.[Dr Jindal]
19. What could be the cause of tall
QRS with coarse features and hepatosplenomegaly?
•GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE TYPE II
•MARFANS SYNDROME
•ROMANO WARD SYNDROME
•POMPES DISEASE
ANS (D) [param,indore]
ref. Harrison 15th pg 2288,Pompe`s disease ( GSD 2 are of 4 types so pompe`s is specific ans.) Har 14 th 2182
20. What is the rx for torsades de
pointes in a patient who has had a prolonged QT interval since birth?
•MAGNESIUM SULPHATE
•OVERDRIVE PACING
•ISOPROTERENOL
•METAPROLOL
ANS (D)
Har14 th 1273
21. Which of these is NOT a congenital
myopathy?
•CENTRAL CORE DISEASE
•NEMALINE DYSTROPHY
•CENTRAL NUCLEAR DYSTROPHY
•Z BAND MYOPATHY
ANS (D) [sivasubramanian coimbatore , param indore]
( Har14th 2477)
22. In which of these conditions
may CPK be raised?
•MUSCLE DISEASE
•LIVER CIRRHOSIS
•BILIARY COLIC
•AMYOTROPHIC LATERAL SCLEROSIS
ANS (A)
23. Which of these following does
NOT require the drug dose to be reduced in a patient having hypertension, serum
urea 55, serum creatinine 5.6
•INH
•RIFAMPIN
•PYRAZINAMIDE
•ETHAMBUTOL
ANS (B)
24. What drug should be avoided in
the case of an HIV patient who is receiving zalcitabine, indinavir and lamivudine?
•INH
•RIFAMPIN
•PZA
•ETHAMBUTOL
ANS (B)
25. What is NOT true about multiple
myeloma?
•MORE IN THOSE OVER 50 YEARS
•CLONES OF PLASMA CELLS
•BENCE JONES PROTEINS ARE ABNORMAL WHOLE IG IN URINE
•THERE IS A PREDISPOSITION TO AMYLOIDOSIS
ANS (C)
26. What is the likely diagnosis
in a patient who has low back ache, L3 tenderness, and the following data: proteins
8.9, a-g ratio 2.9/5.9, serum creat 5.5, TLC 4500, DLC neutrophil55, lymphocyte40,
eosinophil2 : Urea was 93 and serum creat was 1.2.ESR was 90 mm
•WALDENSTROMS MACROGLOBULINEMIA
•MULTIPLE MYELOMA
•AMYLOIDOSIS
•BONE SECONDARIES
ANS (B) [Dr Anuj ,Hubli]
27. Patient has target cells, nucleated
RBCs, microcytic hypochromic anemia and a positive family history; what is the
investigation of choice?
•COOMBS TEST
•OSMOTIC FRAGILITY
•Hb ELECTROPHORESIS
•SUCROSE LYSIS TEST
ANS (C)
28. Which of these is NOT a clinical
feature of hypercarbia?
•MIOSIS
•COLD CLAMMY EXTREMITIES
•BRADYCARDIA
•HYPERTENSION
ANS (B,C)
29. A 25 year old male has a mantoux
of 14 x 17, weight loss, off and on fever, and hemoptysis for 4 months; sputum
is negative for AFB, ESR is raised; what is the likely diagnosis?
•PTB
•VIRAL PNEUMONIA
•FUNGAL PNEUMONIA
•BRONCHOGENIC CARCINOMA
ANS ( A)
30. What is NOT true about prion
disease?
•10% HAVE MYOCLONUS
•CAUSED BY AN INFECTIOUS PROTEIN
•DEMENTIA IS UNIVERSAL
•BRAIN BIOPSY IS DIAGNOSTIC
ANS (C) AND (A)
31. What is the likely diagnosis
in a 25 year old who develops hematuria after 3 days of URI?
•IgA NEPHROPATHY
•PSGN
•HSP
•HUS
ANS (A)
32. An individual who underwent renal
transplantation one year ago is found positive for HBsAg and HCV. Rx with which
of the following will give this patient maximum benefit?
•LAMIVUDINE AND IFN
•LAMIVUDINE ALONE
•RIBAVARINE
•IFN
ANS (B) [vikas,jipmer ;Dr. Binit Shekhar,Jamshedpur,Jitendra Agrawal,Gwalior ]
As lamivudine is beneficial for chr.hep.B(replecative phase)& here in this question there is no serum marker of replecative phase i.e. HBeAg & HBV DNA in serum or intrahepatic HBcAg.Secondly,Lamivudine has got no role in the t/t. of HCV.Whereas Interferon is effective in t/t. of both HBV & HCV.REFF.page-1698(Last para.)1699(1st.para)1700(2nd.para)1701(t/t.of chr.hcv.) Harrison,14th edition-IInd VOL.2
Ref : Harrison 1745 15th edition
33. In which condition should propranolol
NOT be used?
•ASTHMA
•PANIC ATTACK
•PREMATURE VENTRICULAR CONTRACTIONS
•HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY
ANS (A)
34. Which of these is NOT a CNS anomaly
seen in HIV?
•PERIVASCULAR INFILTRATION
•MICROGLIAL NODULES
•VASCULAR MYELOPATHY OF THE POSTERIOR COLUMN
•TEMPORAL LOBE INVOLVEMENT
ANS (D)
35. What is NOT true regarding toxoplasmosis?
•IgG INDICATES CONGENITAL INFECTION
•MOST INFECTIONS ARE ANTHROPONOTIC
•ADULT INFECTIONS ARE MAINLY SYMPTOMATIC
•TOXO ENCEPHALITIS OCCURS IN IMMUNOCOMPETENT PERSONS
ANS (C) (corrected question)
36. What is NOT true regarding an
adult hemophiliac who visits a dentist?
•CRYOPRECIPITATE MAY BE NEEDED
•DOSE OF LIDOCAINE REQIIRED IS INCREASED
•HIV SCREENING IS REQUIRED
•MONITORED GA CARE TO BE GIVEN
ANS (B)
a i p p g
37. What is NOT true about fibrolamellar
cancer of liver?
•NOT MORE IN MALES
•BETTER PROGNOSIS
•AFP IS RAISED OVER 1000
•SEEN IN YOUNGER AGE G ROUP
ANS (C)
38. Which of these is adult PCKD associated with ?
•FUSIFORM ABDOMINAL ANEURYSM
•BERRY ANEURYSM
•SACCULAR ANEURYSM OF ASCENDING AORTA
•ANEURYSM OF THE ARCH OF AORTA
ANS (B)
39. 18 year old boy presents with
massive hematemesis, spleen is evidently enlarged upto the umbilicus. He is
then found to have varices on esophagoscopy. What could be the diagnosis?
•BUDD CHIARI
•VENO OCCLUSIVE DISEASE
•NON CIRRHOTIC PORTAL FIBROSIS
•CIRRHOSIS OF THE LIVER
ANS (C)
40. what is NOT true with regard
to the adult polycystic kidney?
•HEMATURIA
•HYPERTENSION IS RARE
•AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT TRANSMISSION
•CYSTS ARE SEEN IN THE LIVER, SPLEEN AND PANCREAS
ANS (B)
41. 18 yr old presents with massive
hematemesis; history of fever for the past 14 days; rx with drugs; moderate
spleen present; diagnosis?
•NSAID INDUCED DUODENAL ULCER
•DRUG INDUCED GASTRITIS
•ESOPHAGEAL VARICES
•PORTAL HYPERTENSION
ANS (C)
42. A 25 year old male with no previous
cardiac complaints presents with arrhythmias. He gives a recent history of binge
drinking. What is the pathology likely in this patient?
•ATRIAL FIBRILLATION
•SUPRAVENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA
•VENTRICULAR ECTOPICS
•ATRIAL FLUTTER
ANS (A)
43. which condition may cause hypothalamic
hypogonadism?
•FROLICH SYNDROME
•FOSTER KENNEDY SYNDROME
•KALLMAN SYNDROME
•FRAGILE X SYNDROME
ANS (C)
44. What is the next line of management
for a 25 year old woman who develops acute pulmonary embolism?
•THROMBOLYSIS
•LMW HEPARIN
•ORAL ANTICOAGULANTS
•IVC FILTER
ANS (A)
45. A 30 yr old male patient presented
with H/O dizziness, vertigo, diplopia, dysphagia , weakness on the right side
of the body, along with Horners syndrome on the same side. Loss of pain and
temperature sensations on the left side was noted. Patient also has loss of
memory. The artery most likely to be involved in the condition described above
is?
•ANTERIOR INFERIOR CEREBELLAR
•POSTERIOR INFERIOR CEREBELLAR
•MIDDLE CEREBRAL
•SUPERIOR CEREBELLAR
ANS (B) [bhavna, shimla]
Harrison 14th This is Lateral medullary syndrome d/t involnvement of any of the 5 vessels Viz: Vertebral,Posterior Inferior cerebellar,Sup/meddle or Inferir medullary arteries So the ans is B(PICA)
46. In which of the following conditions
is plasmapheresis IS useful?
•WEGENERS GRANULOMATOSIS
•HSP
•GOOD PASTEURS SYNDROME
•GUILLAIN BARRE SYNDROME
ANS (C) [nidhi,shimla]
47. which of these does NOT feature
eye manifestations in association with a sero negative arthropathy?
•PSORIASIS
•RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
•REITERS SYNDROME
•ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS
ANS (B)
a i p p g .com
48. Why is the sickle cell carrier
state usually asymptomatic?
•THE HbS CARRIER STATE HAS HIGHER OXYGEN AFFINITY
•LESS THAN 50% SATURATION DOES NOT CAUSE SICKLING
•THERE IS ALLOSTERIC BINDING OF HbA to the HbS CARRIER STATE
•THERE IS AMPLE HbF TO MAKE UP FOR THE CARRIER STATE
ANS (B)
49. An HIV patient is in treatment
with Didinosine ,Stavudine , Indinavir . He is dignosed to have pulmonary tuberculosis,which
one of the following ATT drugs is to be avoided?
•INH
•RIFAMPIN
•PZA
•ETHAMBUTOL
ANS (B)
50. A lady with congenital heart
disease underwent a dental extraction and developed endocarditis. Which is the
organism most likely to have been involved in the pathogenesis?
•STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS
•STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE
•STREPTOCOCCUS SANGUIS
•STAPHYLOCOCCUS EPIDERMIDIS
ANS (C)
51. In Rheumatic heart disease the
vegetations are seen along the line of closure of the mitral valve. These vegetations
are likely to get lodged in any of the following sites EXCEPT ?
•BRAIN
•LUNG
•SPLEEN
•KIDNEY
ANS (B)
52. which of these is Hepatitis B
infection most commonly associated with?
•PAN
•CRYOGLOBULINEMIA
•SLE
•POLYMYOSITIS
ANS (A)
53. Which of these is NOT caused
by enteroviruses?
•HERPANGINA
•HEMORRHAGIC FEVER
•PLEURODYNIA
•ASPETIC MENINGITIS
ANS (B)
54. Which of these is a calicivirus?
•HAV
•HBV
•HCV
•HEV
ANS (D)
55. From which area should a biopsy
be taken in the case of a viral esophageal ulcer?
•EDGES
•SURROUNDING MUCOSA
•BASE
•INDURATED AREA
ANS (A) [Sony, kerala; harsh]
[CMV ulcer biopsy is done fron center but CMV is not the most common ulcer: most common biopsy in viral oesophagitis is edge: HPIM 14th]
"Harrison 14th: VIRAL ESOPHAGITIS Mucosal cells from a biopsy sample taken at the edge of an ulcer or from a cytologic smear show ballooning degeneration, ground-glass changes in the nuclei with eosinophilic intranuclear inclusionsMucosal cells from a biopsy sample taken at the edge of an ulcer or from a cytologic smear show ballooning degeneration, ground-glass changes in the nuclei with eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions "
56. What is the investigation for
an 8 yr old boy with a lesion on the back, featuring peripheral scaling and
central scarring?
•TZANCK TEST
•KOH MOUNT
•SKIN BIOPSY
•PATCH TEST
ANS (C)
This patient is suffering from lupus vulgaris, hence best diagnosed by skin biopsy.
57. What is the investigation for
invasive amebiasis?
•ELISA
•BIOPSY
•IHA
•PCR
ANS (A)
58.A 30 yr old patient who had laparotomy
recently, developed an intraperitoneal abscess (Peritonitis) caused by Gram
-ve cocci resistant to vancomycin,bacitracin,it is hydrolyzed by 6.5%NaCl, Optochin
+ve. Which is likely to be the causative organism?
•ENTEROCOCCUS FECALIS
•STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIA
•STAPHYLOCOCCUS AUREUS
•PEPTOSTREPTOCOCCUS
ANS (A)
enterococcus (except for them all are Gm +ve)
59. Patient has a brain abscess,
the aspirated material from the same is foul smelling, and reveals red fluorescence
on UV light. What organism could be implicated?
•STAPH AUREUS
•PEPTOSTREPTOCOCCUS
•BACTEROIDES
•ACANTHAMEBA
ANS (C)
60. Which of these does NOT feature
preformed toxins?
•STAPH AUREUS
•ETEC
•B CEREUS
•CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM
ANS (B)
Food poisoning in 1-6 hours is due to PREFORMED TOXINS viz -Staph.aureus -Bacillus cerus Cl. botulinum grows in anaerobic foods and produces toxin (24-96 hours) BUT.ETEC grows in GIT and produces Toxin so the toxin is NOT preformed But formed in BODY.
61. Which of these is a marker for
recent infection? (which is diagnostic of an acute infection?)
•IgM HBsAg
•IgM HBcAg
•HBeAg
•HBsAg
ANS (B)
62. what may be seen in a case of
acute hepatitis B infection?
•DANE PARTICLE
•HBsAg
•IgM ANTI HBc
•ANTI HBe
ANS (C)
63. If a PCR is functioning at 100%
efficiency, how many particles are produced after 3 cycles?
•DOUBLE THE INITIAL
•THRICE THE INITIAL
•FOUR TIMES
•EIGHT TIMES
ANS (D)
64. For which of these is northern
blotting with hybridization useful?
•PROTEIN ANTIGEN
•RNA
•DNA
•HISTONE
ANS (B)
65. Which of these may feature auto
infection?
•ANCYLOSTOMA
•ENTEROBIUS
•ASCARIS
•PARAGONIMUS
ANS (B)
66. What medium is used for culture
in a suspected case of legionnaires disease?
•THAYER MARTIN
•BUFFERED CHARCOAL WITH YEAST EXTRACT
•CHOCOLATE AGAR
•BORDET GENGOU
ANS (B)
67. Following a bee sting, the person
develops periorbital edema, laryngospasm .breathing difficulty . These reactions
are mediated through which of the following?
•CYTOTOXIC T CELL
•IGE MEDIATED
•IGA MEDIATED
•IMMUNE COMPLEX REACTIONS
ANS (B)
68. CLED is preferred to McConkeys
medium because?
•IT IS A DIFFERENTIAL MEDIUM
•PREVENTS SWARMING OF PROTEUS
•SUPPORTS THE GROWTH OF PSEUDOMONAS
•SUPPORTS GROWTH OF CANDIDA AND STAPHYLOCOCCUS
ANS (D) [rajesh,pondicherry]
CLED is preferred over MacConkey because it supports growth of Staph.Strp and Candida (ref:Mackey Mackartney Texbook of Microbiology)
69. Two farmers were brought dead,
autopsy done revealed viscera that had the smell of bitter almonds. The most
likely poisoning is due to that by?
•ORGANOPHOPSPHORUS
•HYDROCYANIC ACID
•MORPHINE
•ATROPINE
ANS (B)
70. A case of poisoning was brought
to the causalty ,a gastric lavage was done ,and the lavage turned black when
it was heated after being treated with silver nitrate. The poisoning is most
likely to have been due to which of the following?
•TIK-20
•CELFOS
•MALATHION
•PARATHION
ANS B (dr rajeev& ashish, udaipur and anuj gupta,hubli)
71. Hemodialysis is mandatory in
which poisoning ?
•COPPER SULPHATE POISONING
•ETHANOL POISONING
•AMPHETAMINE POISONING
•ORGANOPHOSPHORUS POISONING
ANS (B) ref HPIM 14
72. Fine leathery froth that emanates
from the nostrils on chest compression is diagnostic of death due to?
•DROWNING
•HANGING
•MORPHINE POISONING
•STRANGULATION
ANS (A)
73. Which of these ectopic pregnancies
is likely to progress for the maximum period ?
•ISTHMIC
•AMPULLARY
•INTERSTITIAL
•FIMBRIAL
ANS (C)
74. What is the most likely cause
for a 26 year old pregnant woman from bihar referred to a tertiary centre with
hepatic encephalopathy?
•HAV
•HBV
•HCV
•HEV
ANS (D)
75. At what time during gestation
does phosphatidyl glycerol appear?
•20 WEEKS
•28 WEEKS
•32 WEEKS
•35 WEEKS
ANS (D)
.Surfectant is formed in amniotic fluid at 28 weeks but phosphatidylglycerol takes longer.
76. 22 year old nullipara presents
with 1 and half months amenorrhea, abdominal pain. USG reveals empty uterine
cavity and free fluid in the pouch of douglas. What is the likely diagnosis?
•TWISTED OVARIAN CYST
•THREATENED ABORTION
•ECTOPIC PREGNANCY
•MISSED ABORTION
ANS (C)
77. 36 year old G3P3 patient had
LCB 6 years ago, no medical evaluation since then. She now complains of has
excessive vaginal itching, skin pigmentation, lethargy, lack of axillary and
body hair, cold intolerance, hoarseness of voice. On examination, her vagina
is found to be atrophic. Which of these agents is NOT likely to improve her
condition?
•INSULIN
•THYROID EXTRACT
•PREDNISOLONE
•ESTROGEN
ANS (A)
78. what is the stage of an ovarian
cancer with bilateral involvement, capsular rupture, positive ascitic fluid
for malignant cells?
•I
•II
•III
•IV
ANS (A)
This is a stage Ic ovarian cancer.
79. following an FTND, a woman develops
post partum hemorrhage after 2 days. APTT is raised, factor VIII is 10% of normal
value, PT and TT values are normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
•ACQUIRED FACTOR 8 DEFICIENCY
•HEREDITARY FACTOR 8 DEFICIENCY
•DIC
•ANTIPHOSPHOLIPID SYNDROME
ANS (A)
80. which of these is NOT a clinical
sign of scar rupture?
•MATERNAL BRADYCARDIA
•FETAL BRADYCARDIA
•HEMATURIA
•BLEEDING PER VAGINUM
ANS (A)
81. what is true about a diabetic
pregnancy?
• CVS ANOMALIES IS MOST COMMONLY SEEN
•DEXAMETHASONE CONTRAINDICATED SINCE IT CAUSES HYPERGLYCEMIA
•SCREENING FOR DOWNS SYNDROME NOT EFFECTIVE
•BETA AGONISTS ARE CONTRAINDICATED IN PRE TERM LABOR
ANS (A)
82. what is the approximate pH of
amniotic fluid?
•6.7-6.9
•6.9-7.0
•7.1-7.2
•7.4-7.5
ANS (C)
Ref-COGDT,williams PH of amniotic fluid is : 7.2 So the closest choice C that is 7.1-7.2
83. Which of the following is a normal
finding in the third trimester of pregnancy?
•APEX BEAT SHIFTED TO THE 4TH IC SPACE
•CARDIOMEGALY
•DIAPHRAGM IS PUSHED UP
•SHORT MID DIASTOLIC MURMUR
ANS (A)
84. What could be the cause for difficulty
in abduction and internal rotation in a 11 yr old 70 kg boy, having tenderness
in scarpas triangle, painful hip movements, and tendency of the limb to go into
abduction upon flexion of the hip?
•PERTHES DISEASE
•SLIPPED CAPITAL FEMORAL EPIPHYSIS
•TUBERCULOSIS OF HIP
•OBTURATOR HIP
ANS (A)
85. What is the likely cause of a
circumscribed osteosclerotic lesion in the tibial diaphysis in an 10 year old?
•OSTEOID OSTEOMA
•EWINGS SARCOMA
•BONE SECONDARIES
•TUBERCULOSIS
ANS (A)
Ref- Maheshwari -ewing,s(10 - 20 yrs) and osteoid osteoma(5- 25 yrs) both occur in Diaphysis, -differentiating feature here is RADIOLOGICAL app osteoid osteoma - Zone of sclerosis Ewing,s - onion peel appearnce [DR Harsh]
86. Which of the following features
the best bone appostion?
•CHONDROBLASTIC ACTIVITY IN ENDOCHONDRIUM
•OSTEOBLASTIC ACTIVITY IN MEMBRANE
•PERIOSTEAL CHANGES
•ENCHONDRAL OSSIFICATION
ANS (B?)
87. Which condition is NOT likely
to feature the painful arc syndrome?
•SUPRASPINATUS TENDINITIS
•SUBACROMIAL BURSITIS
•COMPLETE SUPRASPINATUS TEAR
•FRACTURE OF GREATER TUBEROSITY HUMERUS
ANS (C)
88. What is used to correct ilio
tibial tract contracture in a neonate?
•CHARNLEY'S Test
•OSBON' Test
•OBER'S Test
•JONES Test
ANS (C) confirmed [Dr Viraj, Jodhpur]
Obers test: Ask the subject to lie laterally on his/her normal side.Raise and flex the side to be tested with the support of (doctors) our arm at the knee and ankle. On removing the support if illiotibial tract contracture is to be found the raised foot stays in raised position due to contracture
a i p p g . c o m
89. what is the most common type
of malignant melanoma?
•SUPERFICIAL SPREADING
•ACRAL LENTIGINOUS
•NODULAR
•LENTIGO MALIGNA
ANS (A)
90. what is the most common site
for a lentiginous melanoma?
•SOLE OF FOOT
•FACE
•LEG
•TRUNK
ANS (A)
91. A melanoma at which site is most
likely to undergo malignant transformation?
•BLUE NEVUS
•JUNCTIONAL
•EPIDERMAL
•DEEP DERMAL
ANS (B)
92. Which condition may feature fat
laden histiocytes in the gastric mucosa?
•SIGNET RING CA
•EROSIVE GASTRITIS
•POST GASTRECTOMY STATUS
•LYMPHOMA
ANS (C)
93. Where do call exner bodies occur?
•GRANULOSA CELL TUMOR
•THECA CELL TUMOR
•DYSGERMINOMA
•BRENNERS TUMOR
ANS (A)
94. Which condition does NOT feature
granulomas?
•MYCOPLASMA PNEUMONIAE
•MYCOBACTERIUM TUBERCULOSIS
•MYCOBACTERIUM LEPRAE
•YERSINIA ENTEROCOLITICA
ANS (A)
95. What is NOT TRUE about apoptosis?
•SURROUNDING INFLAMMATION
•MACROPHAGES TAKE UP DEAD TISSUE
•ACTIVATION OF CAPSASE OCCURS (??)
•ENDONUCLEASES MEDIATE CHROMATOLYSIS
ANS (A)
96. Which of these is a feature of
aging cells?
•LIPOFUSCIN ACCUMULATION
•INCREASED OXIDATIVE PHOSPHORYLATION
•INCREASED GLYCOGEN STORES
•INCREASED NUCLEAR MATERIAL AND MITOCHONDRIA
ANS (A)
97. From where do dividing cancer
cells derive energy?
•GLYCOLYSIS
•MITOCHONDRIA
•OXIDATIVE PHOSPHORYLATION
•ANEROBIC METABOLISM
ANS (A)
98. Which of these is clathrin involved
in ?
•RECEPTOR MEDIATED ENDOCYTOSIS
•RECEPTOR INDEPENDENT ENDOCYTOSIS
•RECEPTOR MEDIATED EXOCYTOSIS
•RECEPTOR INDEPENDENT EXOCYTOSIS
ANS (A)
99. What parameter of the casts are
used to assess the severity in crescentic glomerulonephritis?
•SIZE
•SHAPE
•NUMBER
•PATTERN OF DISTRIBUTION
ANS (C) If cresents are > 50% then it is RPGN
100. What is NOT true with regard
to FAP?
•C-MYC GENE EXPRESSION DECREASED
•ANTIBODIES TO NORMAL MUCIN
•DUE TO DEFECT IN THE FAP GENE
•PROLIFERATION OF COLONIC EPITHELIUM
ANS (A) [Dr Vishal,Jabalpur; DR RAJEEV ,ASHISH ,CHARAN JEET,Udaipur]
c-myc being a protooncogene will increase expression.ref robbins
101. Which of the following is the
true statement regarding minimal change disease?
•LOSS OF FOOT PROCESSES
•ANTIGEN-ANTIBODY COMPLEXES
•LOSS OF FOOT PROCESSES ALONG WITH LOSS OF CHARGE ACROSS MEMBRANE,HENCE
LEADING TO PROTEINURIA
•DESTRUCTION OF THE GLOMERULUS, WITH MINIMAL TISSUE ONLY REMAINING INTACT
ANS (C)
102. what is the enzyme by which
cancer cells become immortalised?
•DNA POLYMERASE
•mRNA POLYMERASE
•TELOMERASE
•TOPOISOMERASE
ANS (C) [Itnal]
ref; robbins 5th ed- page 32
103. Which of these features a reversible
change in cell polarity?
•DYSPLASIA
•METAPLASIA
•ANAPLASIA
•HYPERPLASIA
ANS (A)
104. What does diapedesis refer to?
•ATTACHMENT OF NEUTROPHILS TO BLOOD VESSEL
•ESCAPE OF NEUTROPHILS FROM CAPILLARIES FROM CAPILLARY ENDOTHELIUM
•STIMULATION OF CYTOKINE SECRETION BY INFLAMMATORY CELLS
•RESPONSE OF MEDIATOR CELLS TO CYTOKINE SECRETION
ANS (B)
105. what term is used to denote
the replacement of alveolar epithelium by stratified squamous epithelium, seen
on biopsy of a smokers lung?
•ANAPLASIA
•METAPLASIA
•DYSPLASIA
•HYPERPLASIA
ANS (B)
106. Child under 6 years, with nephrotic
syndrome, responsive to steroids, biopsy done, what will be seen under the light
microscope?
•NOTHING
•LOSS OF FOOT PROCESSES
•TUBULE ATROPHY
•CRESCENTS
ANS (A)
107. Which of these does not regress?
•SALMON PATCH
•STRAWBERRY ANGIOMA
•PORTWINE STAIN
•LYMPHANGIOMATOSIS CIRCUMSCRIPTA
ANS (C)
108. What could be the cause of improvement
in the condition of a child having a perimembranous VSD and heart failure?
•REDUCTION IN SIZE OF THE VSD
•PULMONARY VASCULAR CHANGES
•INFECTIVE ENDOCARDITIS
•AORTIC REGURGITATION
ANS (B)
109. Neonate has cyanosis, pulmonary
oligemia, normal cardiac shadow. What could be the diagnosis?
•TOF
•PULMONARY ATRESIA
•TRANSPOSITION OF GT VESSELS
•EBSTEINS ANOMALY
ANS (C)
110. 5 yr old child with anaemia,increased
reticulocyte count,peripheral smear shows target cells ,normoblasts. The patients
younger brother also suffers from the same condition. What investigation should
be performed?
•Hb ELECTROPHORESIS
•BONE MARROW BIOPSY
•OSMOTIC FRAGILITY TEST
•CHROMOSOMAL ANALYSIS
ANS (A)
111. what is the likely diagnosis
in a 10 month old child with weakness, coarse features and a normal ECG?
•HURLERS
•HUNTERS
•GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISORDER
•PHENYLKETONURIA
ANS (B)
robbins 5th ed---the s/s are common to all mucopolysaccharadoses----
coarse facial features ,clouding of cornea ,joint stiffness ,mental retardation
he also states the diff b/n hurlers & hunters:as--hunters has a milder clinical course where as hurlers child dies of cvs complications at 6-10 yrs of age since the question asks of a normal ecg the ans should be hunters syndrome
112. A young boy has retarded physical
and mental development. Xrays reveal fragmentation of epiphyses and presence
of wormian bones. What is the diagnosis?
•HYPOPITUITARISM
•HYPOTHYROIDISM
•HYPOGONADISM
•SCURVY
ANS (B)
113. Injection of hypotonic saline
into the carotid artery causes activation of the hypothalamus via which of the
following?
•MEDIAL NUCLEUS OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS
•SUPRAOPTIC NUCLEUS OF HYPOTHALAMUS
•PREOPTIC NUCLEUS OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS
•PARAVENTRICULAR NUCLEUS OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS
ANS (B)
114. Respiratory physiology of a
newborn is different from that of an adult by all EXCEPT which of the following?
•INCREASED OXYGEN DEMAND OF THE NEWBORN
•DECREASED FRC IN THE NEWBORN
•ADULT HB HAS DECREASED AFFINITY FOR OXYGEN
•TOTAL LUNG VOLUME IS SMALL/DECREASED IN THE NEWBORN
ANS ( )
115. what is the mechanism by which
hyperventilation may cause muscle spasm?
•DECREASED CALCIUM
•DECREASED CARBON DIOXIDE
•DECREASED POTASSIUM
•DECREASED SODIUM
ANS (A) Harrison 1520>
116.true statement regarding presynaptic inhibition
a.axoaxonal synapse mediated
b.prolongs ipsp
c.prolonged by anaesthesia
d.not affected by pharmacolgical agents
e.it affects motor endplate potential
f.decreased by stychnine
g.decreased by picrotoxin
A. a d f
B.b e f
C.a c f
D.a c f
ANS (C.) [madhu shankar,coimbatore] Tripathi 477.
117. What is NOT true with regard
to semen analysis?
•ABSTINENCE FOR 6 WEEKS PROVIDES THE BEST SAMPLE
•SPERM MOTILITY IS A GOOD INDICATOR OF SPERM QUALITY
•COLLECTION SHOULD BE AT THE SITE OF ANALYSIS
•ABSENCE OF FRUCTOSE MAY INDICATE A BLOCKED EJACULATORY DUCT OR LACK OF
SEMINAL VESICLES
ANS (A)
118. What is the median of these
set of values 2, 5, 7, 10. 10, 15, 20.
•2
•10
•15
•20.
ANS (B)
119. What can be true regarding the
coefficient of correlation between IMR and ecnonomic status?
•r=+1
•r= -1
•r= +0.22
•r = - 0.8
ANS (D)
120. Which is best in order to make
a comparison between 2 populations?
•STANDARDISED MORTALITY RATE
•DISEASE SPECIFIC DEATH RATE
•PROPORTIONAL MORTALITY RATE
•AGE SPECIFIC DEATH RATE
ANS (A)
121. Which is the best index for
burden of disease?
•CASE FATALITY RATE
•DISABILITY ADJUSTED LIFE YEARS
•DEPENDENCE RATE
•MORBIDITY DATA
ANS (B)
122. How much ethinyl estradiol does
the new low dose oral contraceptive pill contain? (IN MICROGRAMS)
•20
•25
•30
•35
ANS (A) [brand name = femilon in india, CMDT 2000 pg 747]
123. Among a 100 women with average
Hb of 10 gm%, the standard deviation was 1, what is the standard error?
•0.01
•0.1
•1
•10
ANS (B)
124. In a particular trial, the association
of lung cancer with smoking is found to be 40% in one sample and 60% in another.
What is the best test to compare the results?
•CHI SQUARE TEST
•FISCHER TEST
•PAIRED T TEST
•ANOVA TEST
ANS (A)
125. How much of the sample is included
in 1.95 SD?
•99%
•95%
•68%
•65%
ANS (B)
126. If the correlation of height
with age is given by the equation y=a + biopsy, what would be the nature of
the graph?
•STRAIGHT LINE
•PARABOLA
•HYPERBOLA
•SIGMOID CURVE
ANS (A)
127. What is NOT true about a case
control study?
•GIVES ATTRIBUTABLE RISK
•IS LESS EXPENSIVE
•INVOLVES LESS SUBJECT
•PROVIDES QUICK RESULTS
ANS (A)
128. In a town of 36,000 people,
there are 1200 live births, and 60 infant deaths. What is the IMR?
•50
•25
•10
•5
ANS (A)
129. At what point in time is the
population assessed for calculation of the crude death rate?
•1ST JAN
•1ST MAY
•1ST JULY
•31ST DEC
ANS (C)
.
130. Which of these is NOT useful
in the prevention of KFD?
•VACCINATION
•DEFORESTATION
•PREVENTION OF ROAMING CATTLE
•PERSONAL PROTECTION
ANS (B)
131. A study was undertaken to assess
the effect of a drug in lowering serum cholesterol levels. 15 obese women and
10 non-obese women formed the 2 limbs of the study. Which test would be useful
to correlate the results obtained?
•UNPAIRED T TEST
•PAIRED T TEST
•CHI SQUARE TEST
•FISCHER TEST
ANS (B)
132. The incidence of carcinoma cervix
in women with multiple sexual partners is 5 times the incidence seen in those
with a single partner. Based on this, what is the attributable risk?
•20%
•40%
•50%
•80%
ANS (D)
133. What is the best determinant
of the health status of a country?
•COUPLE PROTECTION RATE
•IMR
•MMR
•CRUDE BIRTH RATE
ANS (B)
134. Which of these is NOT a component
of the human development index?
•LIFE EXPECTANCY AT AGE ONE
•EDUCATIONAL LEVEL
•PER CAPITA INCOME
•IMR
ANS (D)
135. Which of these is NOT a component
of the PQLI?
•IMR
•LIFE EXPECTANCY AT ONE YEAR
•MMR
•LITERACY RATE
ANS (C)
136. A study of BP is done on 100
healthy individuals aged 25-27 years. The result is a normal distribution with
median BP of 120 mm Hg. What percentage of the subjects will have BP reading
higher than 120?
•25
•50
•75
•100
ANS (B)
137. In which of these conditions
is post exposure prophylaxis NOT useful?
•MEASLES
•RABIES
•PERTUSSIS
•HEPATITIS B
ANS (C)
138. Hb of less than what value is
the cut off used by WHO guidenlines to label an infant under 6 months of age
as being anemic?
•100 g/L
•105 g/L
•110 g/L
•115 g/L
ANS (D) Cut off for 6 months to 6 yrs is 110 gms/L. Considering that answer could be 115 gms/L.
139. What are the amounts of calories
and proteins received by a pregnant woman from the anganwadi worker?
•300 CALS, 15 GM PROTEIN
•500 CALS, 15 GM PROTEIN
•300 CALS, 25 GM PROTEIN
•500 CALS, 25 GM PROTEIN
ANS (D) pg 400 park
140. The incidence of malaria in
an area is 20,20 ,50 ,56,60,5000,678,898,345,456. which of these methods is
the best to calculate the average incidence?
•ARITHMETIC MEAN
•GEOMETRIC MEAN
•MEDIAN
•MODE
ANS (C)
141. 6 yr old child, has history
of birth asphyxia, does not communicate well , has slow mental and physical
growth, does not mix with people, has limited interests, gets wildly agitated
if disturbed: diagnosis?
•AUTISTIC DISORDER
•HISTRIONIC PERSONALITY
•ADHD ATTENTION DEFICIT DISORDER
•SCHIZOPHRENIA
ANS (A)
142. man feels that his nose is too
long; friends feel otherwise. He has consulted 3 plastic surgeons but all have
refused to treat him. He suffers from what condition?
•HYPOCHONDRIASIS
•SOMATISATION
•MUNCHAUSEN SYNDROME
•DELUSIONAL DISORDER
ANS (D)
143. In a patient with no significant
previous history, no history of any drug intake and a normal ECG, what is the
likely cause of palpitations, sweating and feeling of impending doom, each episode
lasting about 10 minutes?
•HYSTERIA
•PANIC ATTACK
•AGORAPHOBIA
•GENERALISED ANXIETY DISORDER
ANS (B)
144. A person on treatment with lithium
for mood disorder presents with seizures , increased reflexes , epileptic fits.
The patient also has a H/O severe gastroenteritis . On investigating the serum
lithium was found to be 1.95mEq/L . This patient is most likely to be suffering
from ?
•SEVERE DEHYDRATION
•LITHIUM TOXICITY
•EPILEPSY
•MANIC EPISODE
ANS (B)
145. A 25 yr old female was brought
to the casualty after she allegedly attempted suicide, her wrists are slashed.
She has a past H/O difficulty in maintaining interpersonal relationships and
also recurrent mood fluctuation episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
•DEPRESSION
•BORDERLINE PERSONALITY DISORDER
•HISTRIONIC PERSONALITY
•SCHIZOPHRENIA
ANS (B)
146. A 70 yr old man presents with
a H/O prosopagnosia , loss of memory , 3rd person hallucinations since 1 month.
On examination deep tendon reflexes are increased, mini mental state examination
score is 20/30. what is the most likely diagnosis?
•DISSOCIATED DEMENTIA
•SCHIZOPHRENIA
•MULTI INFARCT DEMENTIA
•ALZHEIMERS DISEASE
ANS (C)
147. What is the investigation of
choice for a parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma?
•CECT
•CSF CYTOLOGY
•MRI
•SPECT
ANS (C) [corrected]
148. What is the investigation of
choice for neuroendocrine tumors?
•ENDOSCOPIC USG
•SPECT
•RADIONUCLIDE STUDY
•MRI
ANS (C)
149. What is the investigation of
choice for screening for renovascular hypertension with bilateral renal artery
stenosis?
•DUPLEX DOPPLER STUDY
•CAPTOPRIL ENHANCED RADIONUCLIDE SCAN
•USG
•MR ANGIOGRAPHY
ANS (A)
150. What is the next investigation
to be done in a case with recurrent hemoptysis, normal CXR, production of purulent
sputum?
•SPIRAL CT
•HRCT
•MRI
•BRONCHOSCOPY
ANS (B)
151. What is the diagnosis in a woman
who has scarring alopecia, thinning of nails, hyperpigmented patches over the
leg?
•LICHEN PLANUS
•PSORIAISIS
•SECONDARY SYPHILIS
•DERMATOPHYTOSIS
ANS (A)
152. Acne vulgaris involves which
one of the following?
•PILOSEBACEOUS GLANDS
•ECCRINE GLANDS
•APOCRINE GLANDS
•SEBACEOUS GLANDS
ANS (A)
153. A patient diagnosed with psoriasis
was put on treatment with high dose dexamethasone for 2 weeks. The patient stopped
treatment after which he develops high-grade fever and generalized pustular
lesions all over his body. The most likely diagnosis is that of?
•SEPTICAEMIA
•DRUG REACTION
•PUSTULAR PSORIASIS
•SECONDARY BACTERIAL INFECTION
ANS (C)
154. what is the rx of choice for
hyperparathyroidism ?
•REMOVAL OF THE HYPERPLASTIC GLAND
•REMOVAL OF ALL 4 GLANDS
•RADICAL PARATHROIDECTOMY
•3 AND ½ PARATHYROIDECTOMY
ANS (B) Bailey 738
155. which gastric surgery will result
in the least degree of bilious vomiting, dumping and diarrhea?
•TRUNCAL VAGOTOMY AND PYLOROPLASTY
•TV AND ANTRECTOMY
•HSV
•GASTROJEJUNOSTOMY
ANS (C)
156. 20 year old male presents with
massive hematemesis. Gives history of taking some drugs for fever for the past
2 weeks. What is the likely diagnosis?
•ACUTE PEPTIC ULCERATION DUE TO NSAIDS
•EROSIVE GASTRITIS
•ESOPHAGEAL EROSION
•ESOPHAGEAL VARICES
ANS (d)
157. what is NOT true in a case of
urethral injury?
•RARE IN WOMEN
•IMMEDIATE CATHETERISATION INDICATED
•POSTERIOR URETHRAL INJURY OCCURS IN FRACTURE PELVIS
•BLOOD AT URINARY MEATUS IS DIAGNOSTIC
ANS (B)
158. what is the likely source of
hematuria that is persisting for the past 3 days, with red cell casts evident
upon urinalysis?
•BLADDER
•URETHRA
•KIDNEY
•URETER
ANS (C)
159. Treatment of choice for pleomorphic
adenoma?
•SUPERFICIAL PAROTIDECTOMY
•ENUCLEATION
•DEEP PAROTIDECTOMY
•RADICAL PAROTIDECTOMY
ANS (A)
160. What is the most effective rx
for a warthins tumor?
•SUPERFICIAL PAROTIDECTOMY
•DEEP PAROTIDECTOMY
•ENUCLEATION
•RADIOTHERAPY
ANS (A)
161. What is the rx for a stage I
testicular tumor?
•HIGH ORCHIDECTOMY
•HIGH ORCHIDECTOMY PLUS RT
•SCROTAL ORCHIDECTOMY
•BILATERAL ORCHIDECTOMY
ANS (B)
162. Ameloblastoma of the mandible
is most likely to involve which of the following locations?
•AT SYMPHYSIS MENTI
•MOLAR REGION OF MANDIBLE
•IN RELATION TO UPPER 2ND MOLAR
•IN RELATION TO INCISORS
ANS (B) May involve third molar region extending into coronoid process, body and angle of mandible.Less frequently ant part of mandible is involved.Presents mostly in 4th or 5th decade, slow growing, painless unless infected, locally invasive within bone and soft tissue and should be excised with a 1 cm margin.Does not metastasize to LN but does so to lung esp after incomplete removal.They are not radiosensitive.
163. What is the most common tumor
involving the mandible?
•OSTEOSARCOMA
•AMELOBLASTOMA
•LYMPHOMA
•SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
ANS (B) Bailey p.598
164. What is the rx for a cancer
lateral border of tongue with lower neck lymph node secondaries?
•RADICAL NECK DISSECTION
•SUPRAOMOHYOID DISSECTION
•SUPRAHYOID NECK DISSECTION
•TELETHERAPY
ANS (A)
165. What is the rx of choice for
an old man who has reflux of foul smelling food?
•CRICOPHARYNGEAL MYOTOMY
•SAC REMOVAL
•LASER EVAPORATION
•MYOTOMY WITH SAC EXCISION
ANS (D)
166. What is the rx for a 4 x 6 mm
dysgerminoma in a 12 year old girl?
•RIGHT CYSTECTOMY
•RIGHT OOPHORECTOMY
•TAH WITH BSO
•BILATERAL OOPHORECTOMY
ANS (A)
167. What is NOT true about a varicocele?
•MORE COMMON ON THE RT SIDE
•ASSOCIATED WITH INFERTILITY
•LEFT VARICOCELE CAN BE A LATE SIGN OF A TUMOR IN AN ELDERLY MAN
•10% CASES ARE BILATERAL
ANS (A)
168. What is NOT true about torsion
of the testes?
•ABSENCE OF FLOW ON DOPPLER CLINCHES DIAGNOSIS
•PRESENCE OF PYURIA ASSISTS THE DIAGNOSIS
•THE OPPOSITE SIDE TESTES SHOULD BE FIXED
•RAISING THE TESTES WORSENS THE PAIN
ANS (B)
169. What is NOT true about congenital
PUJ obstruction?
•DUE TO COMPRESSION BY AN ABERRANT VESSEL THAN DUE TO INTRINSIC CAUSES
•RETROGRADE PYELOGRAPHY IS USEFUL TO FIND SITE OF OBSTRUCTION
•WHITAKERS FORMULA IS USEFUL FOR CLASSIFICATION AND RX ASSESSMENT
•ANTE NATAL DIAGNOSIS IS POSSIBLE
ANS (A)
In child hood congenital malformations including marked narrowing of the ureteropelvic junction, anomalous retrocaval location of the Ureter and posterior urethral valves predominate. So intrinsic cause is more common than vascular aberrations. Harrison 14 th 1574
170. What is best for the diagnosis
of a firm hard mobile nodule in the right breast of a post menopausal woman?
•FNAC
•EXCISION BIOPSY
•MAMMOGRAPHY
•NEEDLE BIOPSY
ANS (B)
FNAC alone can give false negetives, FNAC + mammography can inprove sensitivity.FNAC is use to diagnose cystic mass not hard mobile mass.
171. Which should NOT be done in
a testicular tumor?
•HIGH INGUINAL ORCHIDECTOMY
•HIGH INGUINAL ORCHIDECTOMY WITH CHEMOTHERAPY
•HIGH INGUINAL ORCHIDECTOMY AND RT
•TRANSCROTAL BIOPSY FOR TISSUE DIAGNOSIS
ANS (D)
172. what is NOT likely to be the
cause of stridor occuring 2 hours after a thyroidectomy ?
•HYPOCALCEMIA
•WOUND HEMATOMA
•TRACHEOMALACIA
•RLN INJURY BILATERALLY
ANS (A)
aippg.com
173. What is the likely cause of
central cyanosis and oligemic lung fields in a neonate with a normal sized heart?
•PULMONARY ATRESIA
•TOF
•TGA
•VSD
ANS (B)>
174. A child has fever, jaundice,
clay colored stools, biopsy suggests giant cell hepatitis; what is the clinical
diagnosis?
•VIRAL HEPATITIS
•NEONATAL JAUNDICE AND EHBA
•NEONATAL JAUNDICE AND IHBA
•NON CIRRHOTIC PORTAL FIBROSIS
ANS (B)
175. What is the diagnosis in a case
of 30 year old male with jaundice, unconjugated bilirubinemia, increased urine
urobilinogen, urine bilirubin is negative, normal direct bilirubin, normal alk
phos?
•HEMOLYTIC JAUNDICE
•VIRAL HEPATITIS
•OBSTRUCTIVE JAUNDICE
ANS (A)
176. What is the diagnosis in a 65
yr old with fever, flank pain, calculi with fat densities?
•XANTHOMATOUS PYELONEPHRITIS
•RENAL ABSCESS
•CHRONIC PYELONEPHRITIS
•TUBERCULOUS KIDNEY
ANS (A)
177. What is the likely diagnosis
in a case with renal calcification, irregular bladder wall outline, and hematuria?
•TUBERCULOSIS
•SCHISTOSOMIASIS
•AMYLOIDOSIS
•HUNNERS CYSTITIS
ANS (B)
178 .In INDIA sentinel survellience is done for following diseases./conditions ,EXCEPT
(a)Hepatitis B
(b)Diarrhoea
(c)Acute Flaccid Paralysis
(d)HIV.
ANS [B]
179. what is NOT true with regard
to 'triple' stones?
•STRUVITE STONES ARE COMPOSED OF TRIPLE PHOSPHATE
•THEY ARE CALLED STAGHORN CALCULI WHEN THEY ARE FORMED IN THE RENAL PELVIS
•FORM IN ACIDIC URINE
•ASSOCIATED WITH UTI
ANS (C)
180. Tumor/mass lesion of the kidney
with extension into the IVC,Gerotas' fascia is intact.all the folowing are true
EXCEPT
•IVC INVASION IS A CONTRAINDICATION FOR SURGERY
•CHEST X-RAY TO RULE OUT PULMOARY METS
•PRE-OP RADIOTHERAPY ISNOT INDICATED
•PRE-OP BIOPSY IS NOT INDICATED
ANS (A)
181. Which of these is a criterion
for conservative rx in a ureteric calculus?
•INFECTION AND HYDRONEPHROSIS PRESENT
•SIZE UNDER 6 MM
•NO MOVEMENT FOR 2 WEEKS
•HIGHLY SYMPTOMATIC
ANS (B)
182. What is NOT true about a urinary
bladder calculus?
•PRIMARY STONES RARE IN INDIAN CHILDREN
•TRANSURETHRAL REMOVAL IS POSSIBLE
•MOST ARE RADIO OPAQUE
•KUB CLINCHES THE DIAGNOSIS
ANS (A) [debashish, banglore ; harsh , pune, imdad,sunil delhi]
183. What investigation should be
done for a prostatic nodule in a 60 year old man?
•EXPRESSED PROSTATIC SECRETION ANALYSIS
•CT SCAN PELVIS
•TRANSRECTAL USG
•MRI
ANS (C)
184. What is NOT true about carcinoma
penis?
• CIRCUMCISION ANY TIME BEFORE PUBERTY IS 100% PROTECTIVE
•ERYTHROPLASIA OF QUEYRAT IS PREMALIGNANT
•OCCURS IN UNHYGIENIC CONDITIONS
•PRESENTS WITH INGUINAL NODE ENLARGEMENT IN 50% OF THE CASES
ANS (A) Circumcision done at birth offers 100% protection but not afterwards.
185. Which type of malignancy occurs
in longstanding multinodular goitre?
•PAPILLARY
•FOLLICULAR
•ANAPLASTIC
•MEDULLARY
ANS (B)
186. Which condition may feature
pulsatile varicose veins?
•TRICUSPID REGURGITATION
•DEEP VEIN THROMBOSIS
•KLIPPEL TRENAUNAY SYNDROME
•RIGHT VENTRICULAR FAILURE
ANS (C)
187. What may cause local gigantism
with varicosities?
•AV FISTULAE
•DEEP VEIN THROMBOSIS
•ACROMEGALY
•OSTEOSARCOMA
ANS (A)
188. All the following are used as
sclerosing agents EXCEPT
•ALCOHOL
•ACETIC ACID
•CRYSOLATE
•POLYDIOCONOL
ANS (B)
189. Pelviureteric obtruction on
the left side in a 33 year old male who presents with fever and infection. All
the following are correct EXCEPT
•DISMEMBERING PYLOPLASTY IS THE TREATMENT OF CHOICE
•ENDOSCOPIC PYLOPLASTY IS CONTRAINDICATED
•MOST COMMMON CAUSE IS AN ABBERANT VESSEL
•TUBERCULOSIS CAN BE A CAUSE
ANS (??)
190. 60 yr old hypertensivecomes
with abdominal pain,fusiform dilatation of the abdominal aorta.What could be
the most probable etiology
•MARFANS SYNDROME
•SYPHILIS
•ATHEROSCLEROSIS
•CYSTIC MEDIAL NECROSIS
ANS (C)
191. which of these is most often
secreted by a pheochromocytoma?
•EPINEPHRINE
•NOREPINEPHRINE
•DOPAMINE
•SEROTONIN
ANS (B)
192. In a surgery ward WHAT the best
method of prevention of post op wound infection in the patients and hence preventing
their spread to other patients?
•HAND WASHING PRIOR TO AND IN BETWEEN PATIENT EXAMINATION AND DRESSINGS
•FUMIGATION OF THE WARD
•CLEANING OF THE FLOOR WITH CERAMIDE
•VANCOMYCIN PROPHYLAXIS
ANS (A)
193. What is the preferred rx for
a solitary thyroid nodule?
•HEMITHYROIDECTOMY
•TOTAL THYROIDECTOMY
•SUBTOTAL THYROIDECTOMY
•ENUCLEATION
ANS (A)
194. All of the following pass behind
ischial spine except?
•OBTURATOR NERVE
•PUDENDAL NERVE
•INTERNAL PUDENDAL VESSELS
•NERVE TO OBTURATOR INTERNUS
ANS (A)
195. Injury to which nerve during
a herniorrhaphy may cause paresthesia at the root of scrotum and base of penis?
•ILIOINGUINAL
•PUDENDAL
•GENITOFEMORAL
•ILIOHYPOGASTRIC
ANS (A)
196. Which of these statements regarding
the kidney is NOT correct?
•RT. KIDNEY IS PREFERRED TO THE LEFT FOR TRANSPLANTATION
•RT. KIDNEY IS AT A LOWER LEVEL THAN THE LEFT
•RT KIDNEY IS RELATED TO THE DUODENUM IN THE ANTEROMEDIAL ASPECT
•RT RENAL VEIN IS SHORTER THAN THE LEFT
ANS (A)
197. All of the following enzyme
deficiencies EXCEPT ONE may cause lens opacities and mental retardation in a
child?
•GALACTOKINASE
•GALACTOSE UDP 1 TRANSFERASE
•GALACTOSE 4 EPIMERASE
•LACTASE
ANS (D)
198. Dietery fibres are degraded
by colonic bacteria to form which of the following?
•BUTYRATES
•GLYCEROL
•SUCROSE
•FREE RADICALS
ANS (A)
199. what is the possible cause for
gout in a patient who has a glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency?
•INCREASED SYNTHESIS OF PENTOSES
•INCREASED ACCUMULATION OF SORBITOL
•INCREASED SYNTHESIS OF GLYCEROL
•DECREASED FUNCTION OF KREBS CYCLE
ANS
200. consider a chain reaction where
the sequence of events is: S1 ======>S2=======>S3======>S4, converts
to P1, converts to P2. the sequential enzymes at these 3 reactions are EA, EB
and EC respectively; also consider the following information: enzyme EA has
a positive feedback; enzyme EB has a negative feedback. If enzyme EC is absent.,then
which of the following is true ??
•S1 ACCUMULATES
•S2 ACCUMULATES
•P1 ACCUMULATES
•P2 ACCUMULATES
ANS (B)
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