JIPMER
2000JIPMER
2000
ANATOMY
1. The aortic opening in the diaphragm is at the level of
A. T10
B. T12
C. T6
D. T8
Ans. B
2. Which of the following is not a content of the pudendal canal
A. Pudendal nerve
B. Internal pudendal artery
C. Internal pudendal vein
D. Nerve to obturator internus
Ans. D
3. All the following are general visceral efferent except
A. Nucleus ambiguous
B. Dorsal nucleus of vagus
C. Salivatory nucleus
D. Edinger Westphal nucleus
Ans. A
4. Angle formed by the shaft and the neck of the femur is ___ degrees
A. 115
B. 125
C. 135
D. 145
Ans. B
5. Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ
A. Spleen
B. Lymphnode
C. Bonemarrow
D. Liver
Ans. C
6. Tongue is protruded by which of the following muscle
A. Hyoglossus
B. Palatoglossus
C. Myelohyoid
D. Genioglossus
Ans. D
7. All of the following are features of flat type of pelvis except
A. Narrow subpubic angle
B. Short concave sacrum
C. Divergent side walls
D. Wide sciatic notch
Ans. A
8. A lesion involving the C8 nerve root will affect
A. Extensors of fingers and wrist
B. Flexors of fingers and wrist
C. Small muscles of hand
Ans. B
9.Dorsal scapular nerve supplies
A. levator scapulae and rhomboids
B. supraspinatus and infra spinatus
C. lattismus dorsi
D. serratus anterior
Ans. A
10. With foot off the ground and knee flexed, medial rotation of tibia is brought about by
A. Popliteus
B. gastrocnemius
C. vastus medialis
D. adductor magnus
Ans.
PHYSIOLOGY
11. 90% of CO 2 in blood is transported as
A. Dissolved CO2
B. HCO3-
C. Carboxy haemoglobin
D. Carbamino haemoglobin
Ans. B
12. Hardy-Weinberg law is used to predict inheritance of which of the following type
A. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive
C. x-linked dominant
D. x-linked recessive
Ans. B
13. Intercalating bridges in sarcomere are formed by
A. actin
B. myosin
C. tropomyosin
D. calmodulin
Ans. A
14. Blood flow changes are least during exercise in
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Skin
Ans. A
15. The main fuel used during starvation by a healthy adult is
A. free fatty acids
B. amino acids
C. glucose
D. ketone body
Ans. C?
16. Which of the following sensations is not converging on hypothalamus
A. smell
B. fine touch
C. hearing
D. vision
Ans. C
17. If acid is added to a medium containing intact mitochondria which of the following is seen
A. uncoupling of phosphorylation
B. inhibition of Electron Transport Chain
C. inhibition of phosphorylation
D. generation of ATP
Ans.
18. Instrumental conditioning in learning was introduced and demonstrated by
A. Pavlov
B. Skinner
C. Freud
D. Watson
Ans. B?
19. Endothelium derived relaxation factor is supposed to be
A. Nitric oxide
Ans. A
20. The fine movements of voluntary muscles are controlled by
A. Anterior corticospinal tract
B. Lateral corticospinal tract
C. Tectospinal
D. Vestibulospinal
Ans.
BIOCHEMISTRY
21. Features of Vitamin C deficiency is due to defect of which enzyme
A. Lysyl hydroxylase
B. Lysyl oxidase
C. Procollagen peptidase
Ans. A
22. Okazaki pieces are seen in
A. DNA repair
B. DNA replication
C. Transcription
D. Translation
Ans. B
23. Major Histocompatibility Complex is located on
A. Long arm of chromosome 6
B. Short arm of chromosome 6
C. Long arm of chromosome 7
D. Short arm of chromosome 7
Ans. B
24.Which of the following ketone bodies is commonest following prolonged starvation
A. Aceto acetate
B. B-hydroxy buryrate
C. acetone
D. alpha ketoglutarate
Ans. B?
25. cAMP is degraded by
A. Phosphodiesterase
B. Phosphokinase
C. Phosphatase
D. Xanthine oxidase
Ans. A
MICROBIOLOGY
26. Bacterial adherence to epithelium is mediated through
A. pili
B. fimbriae
C. flagella
D. mesosomes
Ans. A
27. Which of the following organism is capsulated
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Cryptococcus neoformans
C. Candida albicans
Ans. B
28. Ova with lateral spines is a feature of
A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Schistosoma mansoni
C. Schistosoma haematobium
D. Schistosoma mekongi
Ans. B
29. Which of the following is an oncogenic retrovirus
A. HTLV-1
B. HPV
C. EBV
D. HBV
Ans. A
30. Which of the following activates the alternate complement pathway
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgD
Ans. A
31. Which of the following activates the classical complement pathway
A. Immune complex
B. Lipopolysaccharide
C. Exotoxin
Ans. A
32. Serum sickness is due to which type of hypersensitivity
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
Ans. C
33. Most common site of infection with Cryptococcus neoformans is
A. Lung
B. Meninges
Ans. B
34. All are true about streptococcal infections except
A. throat infection more common in age group of 5-15years
B. skin infection more common in age <3yrs
C. 15-20% colonization of mucosal surfaces
D. scarlet fever more common <3yrs
Ans. D
PATHOLOGY
35. Which of the following is not a feature of anemia of chronic disease
A. increased TIBC
B. increased serum iron
C. increased serum ferritin
D. increased bone marrow iron
Ans. B
36. Which among the following does not secrete Interleukin 1 alpha
A. lymphocyte
B. fibroblast
C. macrophage
D. endothelium
Ans. A
37. Histological scoring' of chronic hepatitis does not include
A. periportal inflammation
B. portal fibrosis
C. bridging necrosis
D. cholestasis
Ans. D
38. Pulmonary surfactant is synthesized by
A. Type I pneumocytes
B. Type II pneumocytes
Ans. B
39. Regarding DIC all the following features are correct except
A. Increased fibrin degradation products
B. Decreased platelets
C. Increased fibrinogen
Ans. C
PHARMACOLOGY
40. Which of the following is the most beta-1 selective antagonist
A. Acebutolol
B. Atenolol
C.Metoprolol
D.Bisoprolol
Ans. D
41. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in all the following except
A. Bilateral renal artery stenosis
B. Elderly hypertensive
C. Diabetic microalbuminuria
D. Severe renal failure
Ans. C
42. Which of the following is a cardiotoxic anticancer drug
A. bleomycin
B. doxorubicin
C. 5 FU
Ans. B
43. Opiod induced respiratory depression can be reversed with
A. Naloxone
B. Theophylline
C. Artificial ventillation
Ans. A
44. Calcium channel blocker which is usually used in subarachnoid hemorrhage is
A. Nimodipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Verapamil
Ans. A
45. Drug induced cirrhosis is not seen with
A. alpha methyldopa
B. phenylbutazone
C. INH
Ans. B
46. Which of the following is not used in the prophylaxis of febrile seizures
A. sodium valproate
B. carbamazepine
C. phenobarbitone
D. diazepam
Ans. B
47. Which of the following drugs is tuberculostatic
A. Rifampicin
B. Ethambutol
C. Pyrazinamide
D. INH
Ans. B
48. Which of the following drugs will not cause hypothyroidism
A. Ethambutol
B. Lithium
C. Amiodarone
D. Pyrazinamide
Ans. D
49. Dopamine inhibits secretion of
A. Growth hormone
B. Prolactin
Ans. B
50. Which of the following is not an analeptic agent
A. Doxapram
B. Nikethamide
C. Doxacurium
D. Propylbutamide
Ans. C
51. Which of the following drugs is not used for the treatment of anaerobic infections
A. penicillin
B. clindamycin
C. chloramphenicol
D. gentamycin
Ans. D
52. Which of the following drugs is used to treat Chlamydia infection in pregnancy
A. Doxycyclin
B. Erythromycin
C. Mirepenam
D. Tetracyclin
Ans. B
53. Troglitazone is the drug used in the treatment of
A. petit mal epilepsy
B. type 2 diabetes mellitus
C. hyperlipidaemia
Ans. B
54. Which of the following is not an alpha-2 stimulant
A. guanabenz
B. guanadrel
C. clonidine
D. alpha methyl dopa
Ans. B
55. 99% of degradation of Iodine131 occurs in
A. 26days
B. 36days
C. 46days
D. 56days
Ans. D
56. Atropine is added with diphenoxylate to
A. Increase effect
B. decrease side effects
C. decrease abuse
D. enhance absorption
Ans. C
57. Monitoring of drug level is not needed with which of the following drugs
A. Lithium
B. L-Dopa
C. Digoxin
D. Phenytoin
Ans. B
58. Which among the following have greatest affinity for pseudocholine esterase
A. Mivacurium
B. Atracurium
Ans. A
59. Selective decrease in IgA is seen with administration of
A. Phenytoin
B. Diazepam
C. Clonazepam
D. Phenobarbitone
Ans. A
60. Which of the following is prothrombotic
A. Thrombomodulin
B. PGI2
C. Heparin
D. ADP
Ans. D
61. Carbamazepine toxicity is precipitated by
A. Erythromycin
B. vitaminK
C. Theophyllin
Ans. A
FORENSIC MEDICINE
62. Which of the following is most useful for sex determination
A. Skull
B. femur
C. pelvis
D. tibia
Ans. C
63. Which of the following is diagnostic of drowning
A. froth in the nostrils
B. cutis anserina
C. water in the stomach
D. mud in the respiratory passages
Ans. A
64. Green colored urine is seen after ingestion of
A.copper sulphate
B.phenol
C.organophosphorus
D.cyanide
Ans. B
65. Leading questions are not permitted in
A.cross examination
B.examination in chief
C.questions by the judge
Ans. B
MEDICINE
66. Diagnosis of lung sequestration is by
A.CT
B.Angiography
C.MRI
D.X-ray
Ans. B
67. Bleeding in a case of obstructive jaundice is treated with
A.Fresh Frozen Plasma
B.Cryo precipitate
C.Whole blood
D.Buffy coat extract
Ans. A
68. Dichrotic pulse is seen in
A. Cardiac tamponade
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. dilated cardiomyopathy
D. restrictive cardiomyopathy
Ans. C
69. Which of the following ECG finding is diagnostic of cardiac ischaemia in treadmill test
A. flat ST depression
B. upsloping ST depression
C. ventricular tachycardia
D. T wave inversion
Ans. A
70. A child presents with a history of scorpion sting. He is having increased sweating. What is the best next step
A.lytic cocktail
B.atropine
C.antevenom
Ans. C
71. Transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature of
A.variceal sclerotherapy
B.coronary artery bypass
C.peritoneal dialysis
D.radiation
Ans.
72. The drug of choice for type 2 lepra reaction is
A.Clofazimine
B.Chloroquin
C.Thalidomide
D.Steroids
Ans. C
73. All are true about amyotropic lateral sclerosis except
A.Bowel and bladder involvement is present
B.LMN in upper limb
C.UMN in lower limb
D.no sensory involvement
Ans. A
74. Senile plaques in brain is a feature of
A.Multiple sclerosis
B.Parkinsonism
C.Alzheimer's disease
Ans. C
75. Primary unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia is a feature of
A.Dubin Jhonson syndrome
B.Rotor syndrome
C.Gilbert's syndrome
D.primary biliary cirrhosis
Ans. C
76. Most common cause of ambiguous genitalia is
A.Congenital adrenal hyperplasia
B.Klinefelter's syndrome
C.Testicular feminization
Ans. A
77. Which of the following is not an ECG sign of hypokalemia
A.tall T waves
B.U waves
C.flat ST segment
Ans. A
78. Most common cause of myelophthisic anemia is
A.Multiple myeloma
B.NHL
C.Lukaemia
D.multiple secondaries
Ans. D?
79. Which of the following is most efficiently transmitted by needle stick injury
A.HIV
B.Hepatitis B
C.Hepatitis C
D.CMV
Ans. B
80. Benzene induced hemolytic anemia is seen with all except
A.Non Hodgkin's lymphoma
B.AML
C.ALL
D.Aplastic anemia
Ans. A?
81. Which of the following is best used in the diagnosis of congenital syphilis
A.FTA-ABS
B.TPHA
C.IgM-FTA ABS
D.TPI
Ans. C
82.Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin is contraindicated in
A.X-linked agammaglobulinemia
B.Kawasaki's disease
C.Guillen Barrie syndrome
D.Selective IgA deficiency
Ans. D
83.Grade 1 lymphedema means
A.pitting edema up to the ankle
B.pitting edema up to the knee
C.non-pitting edema
D.edema disappearing after overnight rest
Ans. D
84. Cause of diarrhea in Diabetes mellitus is
A.defective absorption
B.abnormality in gastrointestinal motility
C.primary mucosal disease.
Ans. B
85. Parenteral nutrition is best given through
A.femoral vein
B.saphenous vein
C.subclavian vein
Ans. C
86. The precursor of amyloid Transthyretin is deposited in which of the following conditions
A.Alzheimer's disease
B.senile cardiac amyloidosis
C.medullary carcinoma thyroid
D.multiple myeloma
Ans. B
87. Egg shell calcification in hilar lymphnodes is a feature of
A.sarcoidosis
B.silicosis
C.lymphoma
Ans. B
88. Which of the following is not a tumor suppressor gene
A.N myc
B.Rb
C.p53
D.Mad-max
Ans. A
89. Which of the following is the best initial screening test for thrombocyto-penia
A.bleeding time
B.clotting time
C.platelet count
Ans. A
90. In Down's syndrome which of the following is true
A.the language defect progresses with age
b seen when mothers are aged between 30-39yrs in >50% of cases
C.the severity of facial changes denotes the severity of mental retardation
D.seizures are common
Ans. B
91. Macula cerulea is seen in
A.Pediculosis humanis corporis
B.Pediculosis capitis
C.Phthiris pubis
Ans. C
92. Lyonization occurs usually at
A.9th day
B.16th day
C.28th day
D.36th day
Ans. B
93. Localized tetanus is due to
A.large gaping wound
B.atypical strains of bacteria
C.abnormally long incubation period
D.partial immunity
Ans. A?
94. Sphenoid wing dysplasia is seen in
A.Von Hippel Lindau's disease
B.Neurofibromatosis
C.Sturge Weber syndrome
D.Bournville's disease
Ans. B
95. CMV does not cause
A.intracranial calcification
B.congenital heart disease
C.mental retardation
D.seizures
Ans. B
96. In cow's milk allergy all are seen except
A.Irondeficiency anemia
B.bloody diarrhea
C.pulmonary hemosiderosis
D.intestinal colic
Ans. A
97. Foster's test is used in the diagnosis of
A.spastic type of Cerbral Palsy
B.hypotonic CP
C.choreo athetotic CP
D.Myasthenia gravis
Ans.
98. Features of hypothyroidism due to TRH/TSH deficiency include all the following except
A.mental retardation
B.hypoglycemia
C.low hairline
D.micropenis
Ans.
99. Renal papillary necrosis is seen in all the following except
A.analgesic nephropathy
B.hydronephrosis
C.acute pyelonephritis
D.sickle cell disease
Ans. B
100. Rhinopharyngitis mutilans is not seen in
A.Yaws
B.Pinta
C.Leprosy
D.Kala azar
Ans. B
101. In acute myocardial infarction the best drug to cause thrombolysis and to start reperfusion is
A.streptokinase
B.urokinase
C.tissue plasminogen activator
D.anisoylated plasminogen streptokinase activator complex
Ans. C
102. Iliac horns are seen in
A.Nail patella syndrome
B.ankylossing spondylitis
Ans. A
103. Regarding lacunar infarcts a feature not seen is
A.multiple
B.pontine
C.severe symptoms
Ans. C
104. Diet therapy in a MI patient should start at what LDL cholesterol level
A.100mg/dl
B.130mg/dl
C.160mg/dl
D.190mg/dl
Ans. A
SURGERY
105. 'Flower vase' appearance in IVP is seen in
A.Poly cystic kidney disease
B.Horse Shoe Kidney
C.Hydronephrosis
D.Ectopic kidney
Ans. B
106. Comma shaped calcification in soft tissues is seen with
A.Armillifer
B.Loa Loa
C.Cysticercus cellulosae
D.Guinea worm
Ans. A
107. A T2 tumor of the oral cavity near the mandible is best treated with
A.Radiotherapy
B.Chemotherapy
C.Surgery
D.Laser ablation
Ans. C?
108. Commonest type of hypospadias is
A.glandular
B.penile
C.coronal
D.scrotal
Ans. A
109. Which of the following is not a feature of Thrombo Angitis Obliterans
A.it usually occurs before the age of 50 years
B.lower limbs are affected before upper limbs
C.there is associated phlebitis
D.femoral artery is involved
Ans. D
110. A 30 year old women is accidently found to have a wide mouthed Meckel's-diverticulum during laprotomy.What is the best method of treatment
A.Diverticulectomy
B.leave it alone
C.resection of diverticulum and invagination of stump
D.resection of diverticulum with a short segment of ileum and anastomosis
Ans. B
111. Radioopaque shadow seen immediately after trauma to the chest could be due to
A.pulmonary embolism
B.pulmonary contusion
C.hemothorax
D.pneumonia
Ans. C
112. Most common cause of bloody discharge from nipple is
A.Duct ectasia
B.Duct carcinoma
C.Duct papilloma
Ans. C
113. Compared with Crohn's disease Ulcerative colitis does not have more
A.malignant change
B.fistula formation
C.bleeding per rectum
D.cholangio carcinoma
Ans. B
114. All are true about deQuervain's thyroiditis except
A.Usually follows a viral infection
B.There is increased radio iodine uptake
C.Initial hyperthyroid state
D.Anti thyroids are of no use
Ans. B
115. Which of the following test is used to detect perforator incompetence in varicose veins
A. Trendelenberg test
B. Fegan's test
C. Morissey's test
D. Homan's test
Ans. B
116. Interruption of Inferior venacava is not indicated in
A.multiple septic emboli
B.multiple small peripheral emboli
C.when anticoagulation is contraindicated
D.Ileo femoral thrombosis
Ans. C
117. Which of the following salivary gland tumors shows perineural spread
A.Warthin's tumor
B.adenoid cystic carcinoma
C.carcinoma in pleomorphic adenoma
D.mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Ans. B
118. Prolonged intake of refined foods leads to which of the following carcinoma
A.stomach
B.gall bladder
C.colon
D.pancreas
Ans. C
119. The X-ray finding which helps to distinguish Hirschsprung's disease from congenital mega colon is
A.Delayed evacuation of barium
B.Air fluid levels
C.Presence of a transition zone
D.Dilated bowel loops
Ans. C
120. Which of the following is not a feature of a healthy healing ulcer
A.Sloping edge
B. Undermined edge
C. Serous discharge
D. Reddish base
Ans. B
121 What is the management of a low, straight, 2cm long peri anal fistula
A. fistulectomy
B. seton repair
C. proximal colostomy
D. anal dilatation
Ans. A
122. Graft used in infra inguinal bypass is
A. PTFE
B. Dacron
C. Autologous vein
Ans. C
123. Best treatment for external hemorrhage from an extremity is
A. elevation of the limb
B. proximal tourniquet
C. direct pressure
D. ligation of the bleeding vessel
Ans. C
124. Investigation of choice for Posterior urethral valve is
A. Retrograde cystourethrogram
B. MCU
C. IVP
D. USG
Ans. B
125. Most virus associated malignancy is
A. Carcinoma cervix
B. Burkitt's lymphoma
C. Carcinoma Breast
Ans. C
126. Most common age group of benign cystic teratoma is
A. <10yrs
B. 20-40yrs
C. 40-60yrs
D. >60yrs
Ans.
127. Burns involving head face and trunk constitutes how much percentage
A. 45%
B. 55%
C. 60%
D. 65%
Ans. A
PSM
128. Net Reproductive Rate of 1 implies a Couple Protection Rate of
A. 50
B. 60
C. 70
D. 80
Ans. B
www.aippg.com
discuss questions at message board at aippg.com
129. Vector of Japanese Encephalitis in South India is
A.Culex tritaneorhyncus
B.Anopheles
Ans. A
130. Minimum level of free chlorine in potable water is
A. 1mg
B. 0.5mg
C. 0.2 mg
D. 0.7mg
Ans. B
131. Which of the following is true about Cohort study
A.incidence can be calculated
B.it is from effect to cause
C.it is inexpensive
D.shorter time than case control
Ans. A
132. Which of the following diseases is not included in international health regulations
A. plague
B. yellow fever
C. cholera
D. polio
Ans. D
133. The size of sand particle in slow sand filter is
A. 0.1 -0.2 mm
B. 0.2-0.3 mm
C. 0.3-0.4 mm
D. 0.4-0.5 mm
Ans. B
134. What is the potassium concentration in WHO ORS solution
A. 10meq
B. 20meq
C. 30meq
D. 40meq
Ans. B
135. In the surveillance for Acute Flaccid Paralysis, the age group that is included is below
A. 5yrs
B. 12yrs
C. 8yrs
D. 16yrs
Ans. B?
136. Which of the following is not monitored in malaria surveillance now
A. ABER
B. Infant parasite rate
C. Annual parasite incidence
D. Slide positivity rate